John 1

John 1:1

1. ἐνἀρχῇ = πρὸτοῦτὸνκόσμονεἶναι, ch. John 17:5. The expression is indefinite, and must be interpreted relatively to the matter spoken of. Thus in Acts 11:15, it is ‘the beginning of the Gospel:’ and by the same principle of interpretation, here it is the beginning of all things, on account of the πάνταδιʼ αὐτ. ἐγ. John 1:3.

These words, if they do not assert, at least imply, the eternal præ-existence of the Divine Word. For ἐνἀρχῇἦν is not said of an act done ἐνἀρχῇ (as in Genesis 1:1), but of a state existing ἐνἀρχῇ, and therefore without beginning itself.

ἦν, not equivalent to ἔστιν (see ἐγώεἰμι, ch. John 8:58 alli[4].), as Euthymius and others have supposed; but Origen has given the true reason for the indefinite past being used,—ἦνμὲνκυριώτερονἐπὶτοῦθεοῦλόγουτὸἔστινεἰπεῖνἀλλʼ ἐπεὶπρὸςδιαφορὰντῆςἐνανθρωπήσεωςγενομένηςἔντινικαιρῷ, ἀντὶτοῦἔστιντῷἦνὁεὐαγγελιστὴςκέχρηται (in Catena, Lücke, p. 296). The existence of an enduring and unlimited state of being, implied in ἦν, is contrasted with ἐγένετο in John 1:3, and especially in John 1:14.

[4] alli = some cursive mss.

καὶὁλ. ἦνπρὸςτ. θ.] The usage of πρός here, as with (i.e. ‘chez’), is sufficiently borne out by the reff.

Basil remarks (Lücke, i. 297) that John says πρὸςτὸνθ., not ἐντῷθ., ἵνατὸἰδιάζοντῆςὑποστάσεωςπαραστήσῃ, … ἵναμὴπρόφασινδῷτῇσυγχύσειτῆςὑποστάσεως. Both the inner substantial union, and the distinct personality of the λόγος are here asserted. The former is distinctly repeated in the next words.

κ. θ. ἦνὁλ.] and the Word was God. As regards the form of the sentence, it is strictly parallel with πνεῦμαὁθεός, ch. John 4:24. But the sense to be conveyed here is as weighty a consideration as the form of the sentence. Had John intended to say, ‘God was the Word,’—what meaning could his assertion possibly have conveyed? None other than a contradiction to his last assertion, by which he had distinguished God from the Word.

And not only would this be the case, but the assertion would be inconsistent with the whole historical idea of the λόγος, making this term to signify merely an attribute of God, just as when it is said ὁθεὸςἀγάπηἐστίν. Not to mention the unprecedented inversion of subject and predicate which this would occasion; ὁλόγος having been the subject before, and again resumed as the subject afterwards.

The rendering of the words being then as above, their meaning is the next question. The omission of the article before θεός is not mere usage; it could not have been here expressed, whatever place the words might hold in the sentence. ὁλόγοςἦνὁθεός would give a sense liable to the objections first stated, and destroy the idea of the λόγος altogether. θεός must then be taken as implying God, in substance and essence,—not ὁθεός, ‘the Father,’ in Person. It does not = θεῖος, nor is it to be rendered a God—but, as in σὰρξἐγένετο, σάρξ expresses that state into which the Divine Word entered by a definite act, so in θεὸςἦν, θεός expresses that essence which was His ἐνἀρχῇ:—that He was very God. So that this first verse might be connected thus: the Logos was from eternity,—was with God (the Father),—and was Himself God.

John 1:2

2. In order to direct the mind to the difference (in unity) between this λόγος and ὁθεός, John recalls the reader’s attention to the two first clauses of Joh 1:1, which he now combines, in order to pass on to the creative work, which distinctly belongs to the λόγος. Thus also this verse fixes the reference of αὐτοῦ in John 1:3, which might otherwise, after the mention of θεός, have seemed ambiguous.

John 1:3

3. πάντα = τὰΠάντα (1 Corinthians 8:6; Colossians 1:16), = ὁκόσμος, John 1:10. This parallelism of itself refutes the Socinian interpretation of πάντα, ‘all Christian graces and virtues,’ ‘the whole moral world.’ But the history of the term λόγος forbids such an explanation entirely. For Philo (i. 162) says εὑρήσειςαἴτιονμὲναὐτοῦ (τοῦκόσμου) τὸνθεόν, ὑφʼ οὗγέγονενὕληνδέ, τὰτέσσαραστοιχεῖα, ἐξὧνσυνεκράθηὄργανονδέ, λόγονθεοῦ, διʼ οὗκατεσκευάσθη: see also Colossians 1:16, and Hebrews 1:2. Olshausen observes, that we never read in Scripture that ‘Christ made the world;’ but ‘the Father made the world διὰ the Son,’ or ‘the world was made ὑπό the Father, and διὰ the Son:’ because the Son never works of Himself, but always as the revelation of the Father; His work is the Father’s will, and the Father has no Will, except the Son, who is all His will (ἐνᾧεὐδόκησεν). The Christian Fathers rightly therefore rejected the semi-Arian formula, ‘The Son was begotten by an act of the Father’s will;’ for He is that Will Himself.

καὶχωρ. αὐτ.] This addition is not merely a Hebraistic parallelism, but a distinct denial of the eternity and uncreatedness of matter as held by the Gnostics. They set matter, as a separate existence, over against God, and made it the origin of evil:—but John excludes any such notion. Nothing was made without Him (the λόγος); all matter, and implicitly evil itself, in the deep and inscrutable purposes of creation (for it οὐκἦνἐντῇἀρχῇἀλλὰγέγονεν), διʼ αὐτοῦἐγένετο.

The punctuation at the end of the verse is uncertain, if we regard solely manuscript authority, but rests on the sense of the passage, which is rendered weak, and inconsistent with analogy, by placing the period after οὐδὲἕν:—weak, because in that case we must render ‘That which was made by Him was life (i.e. having life), and that life was the light of men;’ but how was that life, i.e. that living creation which was made by Him, the light of men?—inconsistent with grammatical analogy, for John never uses γενέσθαιἐν for ‘to be made by.’ [But Cyr-Alex[5], who adopts this punctuation, renders the passage thus: ‘that which was made, therein was life.’] Besides which, John’s usage of beginning a sentence with ἐν and a demonstrative pron. should have its weight: cf. ch. John 13:35; John 15:8; John 16:26: 1 John 2:3-5; 1 John 3 :(8), 10, 16, 19, 24; John 4:2 alli[6]. fr. Compare also ἐντούτῳἡἀλήθειαοὐκἔστιν, 1 John 2:4,—ἁμαρτίαἐναὐτῷοὐκἔστιν, ib. 1 John 3:5. I have determined therefore for the ordinary punctuation. It is said to have been first adopted owing to an abuse of the passage by the Macedonian heretics, who maintained that if the exclusion was complete, the Holy Spirit can also not have been without His creating power, i.e. was created by Him. But this would be refuted without including ὃγέγονεν, for the Holy Spirit ἦν, not ἐγένετο.

[5] Alex. Cyril, Bp. of Alexandria, 412–444

[6] alli = some cursive mss.

John 1:4

4. ἐναὐτῷζωὴἦν] Compare 1 John 5:11; 1 John 1:1-2, and ch. John 6:33.

ζωή is not merely ‘spiritual life,’ nor ‘the recovery of blessedness,’—as Tholuck, Kuinoel, &c. explain it:—the λόγος is the source of all life to the creature, not indeed ultimately, but mediately (see ch. John 5:26: 1 John 5:11).

κ. ἡζωὴἦντ. φῶςτ. ἀνθ] This is not to be understood of the teaching of the Incarnate Logos, but of the enlightening and life-sustaining influence of the eternal Son of God, in Whom was life. In the material world, light, the offspring of the Word of God, is the condition of life, and without it life degenerates and expires:—so also in the spiritual world that life which is in Him, is to the creature the very condition of all development and furtherance of the life of the spirit. All knowledge, all purity, all love, all happiness, spring up and grow from this life, which is the light to them all.

It is not φῶς, but τὸφῶς:—because this is the only true light: see John 1:9, also 1 John 1:5.

John 1:5

5. As light and life are closely connected ideas, so are death and darkness. The whole world, lying in death and in darkness, is the σκοτία here spoken of:—not merely the ἐσκοτωμένοι (Ephesians 4:18; see ib. Ephesians 5:7-8), but the whole mass, with the sole exception (see below, John 1:12) of ὅσοιἔλαβοναὐτόν (compare ch. John 3:19: 1 John 5:19).

This φαίνει is not merely the historical present, but describes the whole process of the light of life in the Eternal Word shining in this evil and dark world; both by the O.T. revelations, and (see ch. John 10:16; John 11:52) by all the scattered fragments of light glittering among the thick darkness of heathendom.

καὶ … κατέλ.] and the darkness comprehended (understood, apprehended) it not. That this is the meaning, will be clear from the context. John states here as a general fact, what he afterwards states of the appearance of the Incarnate Word to the chosen people, John 1:11. The sentences are strictly parallel. τὸφ. ἐντῇσκ. φαίνει [7] εἰςτὰἴδιαἦλθεν, and κ. ἡσκ. αὐτὸοὐκατέλ. [8] καὶοἱἴδιοιαὐτὸνοὐπαρέλαβον. In the first, he is speaking of the whole shining of this light over the world; in the second, of its historical manifestation to the Jews. In both cases, the Divine Word was rejected. παρέλαβον is used in the second case as expressing the personal assumption to oneself as a friend or companion: see reff.

[7] When, in the Gospels, and in the Evangelic statement, 1 Corinthians 11:23-25, the sign (║) occurs in a reference, it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in the other Gospels, which will always be found indicated at the head of the note on the paragraph. When the sign (║) is qualified, thus, ‘║ Mk.,’ or ‘║ Mt. Mk.,’ &c., it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in that Gospel or Gospels, but not in the other or others.

[8] When, in the Gospels, and in the Evangelic statement, 1 Corinthians 11:23-25, the sign (║) occurs in a reference, it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in the other Gospels, which will always be found indicated at the head of the note on the paragraph. When the sign (║) is qualified, thus, ‘║ Mk.,’ or ‘║ Mt. Mk.,’ &c., it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in that Gospel or Gospels, but not in the other or others.

Lücke observes (i. 313), that the almost tragic tone of this verse is prevalent through the Gospel of John and his First Epistle, see ch. John 3:19; John 12:37 ff. alli[9].: and is occasionally found in Paul also, see Romans 1:18 ff.

[9] alli = some cursive mss.

The other interpretation of κατέλαβεν, ‘overtook,’ ‘came upon’ (for that of ‘overcame’ (Orig[10], Theophyl., Euthym[11]) is not admissible, the word never importing this), is unobjectionable as far as the usage of the word is concerned (see ch. John 12:35: Mark 9:18); but yields no sense in the context.

[10] Origen, b. 185, d. 254

[11] Euthymius Zigabenus, 1116

The connexion of the two members of our verse by καί is not, ‘The Light shineth in the darkness, and therefore (i.e. because darkness is the opposition to light, and they exclude one another) the darkness comprehended it not;’ but, ‘The Light shineth in the darkness, and yet (notwithstanding that the effect of light in darkness is so great and immediate in the physical world) the darkness comprehended it not:’ see καί below, John 1:11.

John 1:6

6. The Evangelist now passes to the historic manifestation of the Word. μετεληλυθὼςἐπὶτὴνἐπιφάνειαντοῦυἱοῦ, τίναἂνεὗρενἀρχὴνἑτέραν, ἢτὰκατὰτὸνἸωάννην; (Theodor. Mopsuest[12] in loc. p. 729, ed. Migne.) He enunciates briefly in these John 1:6-7, what he afterwards, John 1:19-36, narrates with historical detail.

[12] Mopsuest. Theodore, Bp. of Mopsuestia, 399–428

ἐγένετο—not belonging to ἀπεσταλμένος, but to ἄνθρ.: the ordinary opening of an historical period, see Luke 1:5. No stress on ἐγένετο, as distinguished from ἦν, John 1:1 (Olshausen), see ch. John 3:1. There was—a man sent, &c. In ἀπεστ. παρὰθεοῦ we have possibly a reference to Malachi 3:1.

John 1:7

7. The purpose of John’s coming was to bear witness to a fact, which fact (John 1:33) was made known to him by divine revelation.

εἰςμαρτυρίαν, not as E. V., ‘for a witness,’ but for witness, for the purpose of bearing witness: so A.V.R.

ἵναμαρτ. κ.τ.λ. is an expansion of εἰςμαρτ.:—the subject of his testimony was to be the Light,—and the aim of it, that all might believe (εἰςτὸφῶς, see ch. John 12:36) through him (i.e. John: not τοῦφωτός (Grot.), which confuses the whole, for then we must understand εἰςθεόν after πιστ. which is here out of place).

John 1:8

8. John was himself ὁλύχνοςὁκαιόμενοςκαὶφαίνων (ch. John 5:35), see note on Matthew 5:14, but not τὸφῶς.

On ἵνα, see reff.: it belongs to ἦν, not to ἦλθεν above. And thus there is no ellipsis of ‘came’ or ‘was sent:’ John simply was, in order to &c.

John 1:9

9. The word ἀληθινόν (see reff.) in this connexion imports original, ‘archetypal,’ and is used of the true genuine sources and patterns of those things which we find here below only in fragmentary imitations and derivations. Such an original was the Light here spoken of;—but John was only a derived light,—not lumen illuminans, but lumen illuminatum.

The construction of this verse has been much disputed. Is ἐρχόμενονεἰςτ. κ. to be taken with ἄνθρωπον (as lat[13] syrr cop[14] Orig Eus2 Epiph Chr Cyr Thl Euthym and most of the ancient Commentators and E. V.), or does it belong to τὸφῶςτὸἀλ.?

[13] The Latin versions: an abbreviated way of writing ‘vulg lat-a b c’ &c.

[14] The Coptic or Memphitic Egyptian version. Fourth century?

The former construction can only be defended by a Rabbinical usage, by which כָּל בָּאֵי עוֹלָם means ‘all men’ (Schצttgen, i. 223). But it is very questionable whether John ever speaks thus. Certainly he does not, in any of the passages commonly cited to defend this rendering, ch. John 18:37 (which is spoken by Christ of Himself and His Mission); John 16:21; John 16:28; John 12:46. And even if he had thus spoken, how harsh and how unmeaning is the sentence; whether with Euthym[15] we lay an emphasis on ἦν, or with E. V. &c. supply τοῦτο before it. If this latter had been intended, surely it would have been more distinctly expressed; and even when it is supplied, we have in this verse only a less forcible repetition of Joh 1:4.

[15] Euthymius Zigabenus, 1116

It seems then that we must join ἐρχ. εἰςτ. κ. with τ. φῶςτ. ἀληθ.

But even then, three ways of rendering are apparently open to us.

The first of these, which is that of Socinus, takes ἐρχόμ. κ.τ.λ. as meaning, ‘at its coming into the world.’ This however—besides the sense being inconsistent with John 1:4—leaves the opening clause without a demonstrative pronoun, as before. Then, secondly, ἐρχόμενον might seem to be used in the sense in which we frequently have ἐρχόμενος, as a quasi-future, ‘who was, or is, to come:’ see Matthew 11:3; Mark 10:30 alli[16]. fr.: ch. John 6:14; John 11:27, in which last two places it is joined, as here, with εἰςτὸνκόσμον. But if this be adopted (which even constructionally is very doubtful), the only sense will be that the true light, &c. was to come; i.e. had not yet come; which manifestly is not correct;—for it had come, when John gave his witness; and the whole of these John 1:6-13 relate to the time when He had appeared, and come to His own.

[16] alli = some cursive mss.

We are driven then to the only legitimate rendering, which is to take ἦνἐρχόμενον as equivalent to an imperfect came:—this usage being frequent in the N.T., see reff.:—i.e. at the time when John bore this witness, the true light which lighteth every man, came—was in process of manifesting Himself,—into the world.

Tholuck objects to this construction that ἦν is too far from ἐρχόμενον:—but Lücke answers, that ἦσαν and νηστεύοντες are nearly as far separated in Mark 2:18.

ὃφωτ. πάνταἄνθ. is a further expansion of τὸἀληθινόν.

John 1:10

10. The κόσμος is the created world, into which He came (John 1:9), which was made by Him (John 1:3), which nevertheless (i.e. as here represented by man, the only creature who γινώσκει) knew, recognized Him not.

καί is as in John 1:5.

αὐτόν, not αὐτό, because though τὸφῶς has been the subject, yet the διʼ αὐτοῦἐγένετο brings in again the creative λόγος, Who is the Light. The three members of the sentence form a climax;—He was in the world (and therefore the world should have known Him), and the world was made by Him (much more then should it have known Him), and the world knew Him not.

John 1:11

11. τὰἴδια here cannot well mean the world, or οἱἴδιοι mankind in general: it would be difficult to point out any Scripture usage to justify such a meaning. But abundance of passages bear out the meaning which makes τὰἴδια His own inheritance or possession, i.e. Judæa; and οἱἴδιοι, the Jews: compare especially the parable Matthew 21:33 ff., and Sir 24:7 ff. And thus ἦλθεν forms a nearer step in the approach to the declaration in John 1:14. He came to His own.

On παρέλ. see reff.,—and above on John 1:5.

John 1:12

12. The ὅσοι … primarily refers to the ἐκλογή among the Jews who have just been spoken of: but also, by implication, being opposed to both ὁκόσμος and οἱἴδιοι, the ἐκλογή in all the world.

ἔλαβον = παρέλαβον above—as many as recognized Him as that which He was—the Word of God and Light of men.

ἔδωκεναὐτ. ἐξουσ.] ἐξουσ. is not merely capability = δύναμιν (Lücke),—still less privilege or prerogative (Chrysost. and others),—but power (De Wette); involving all the actions and states needful to their so becoming, and removing all the obstacles in their way (e.g. the wrath of God, and the guilt of sin).

τέκναθ. γενέσθαι] The spiritual life owes its beginning to a birth from above, ch. John 3:3-7. And this birth is owing to the Holy Spirit of God; so that this is equivalent to saying, ‘As many as received Him, to them gave He His Holy Spirit.’ And we find that it was so: see Acts 10:44.

τέκναθ. is a more comprehensive expression than υἱοὶτ. θ., which brings out rather our adoption, and hope of inheritance (Romans 8:14 ff.), whereas the other involves the whole generation and process of our life in the Spirit, as being from and of God, and consequently our likeness to God, walking in light as He is in light (1 John 1:5-7)—free from sin (ib. 1 John 3:9; John 5:18) and death (ch. John 8:51).

τοῖςπιστ. εἰςτ. ὄν. αὐτ.] τὸὄνομααὐτ. is His manifestation as that which He has given Himself out to be, i.e. as a Saviour from sin: see Matthew 1:21, καλέσειςτὸὄνομααὐτοῦἸησοῦναὐτὸςγὰρσώσειτὸνλαὸναὐτοῦἀπὸτῶνἁμαρτιῶναὐτῶν.

John 1:13

13. The Jews grounded their claim to be children of God on their descent from Abraham. John here negatives any such claim, and asserts the exclusive divine birth of all who become children of God by faith. It is to be noticed that the conjunctions here are not the merely disjunctive ones οὔτε … οὔτε, which would necessitate the ranging the clauses as co-ordinate and parallel, but οὐδὲ … οὐδέ, which rise in climax from one clause to another,—‘not ἐξαἱμάτων, nor yet ἐκθελ. σαρκ. nor yet ἐκθελ. ἀνδ., but ἐκθεοῦ’ (see examples of οὔτε, Matthew 12:32; of οὐδέ, Matthew 6:26). Many interpreters have seen in θέλημαἀνδρός the male, and in θέλημασαρκός the female side of human concupiscence (so Augustine, Theophylact, &c.); or in the former the higher and more conscious, in the latter the lower and animal side (Bleek, Luthardt). Besides the above, other objections lie against both these interpretations,—(1) that σάρξ is never so used (Ephesians 5:29 is no instance in point); (2) that θέλημα is ascribed to both.

Euthymius seems to give the right interpretation: εἰπὼνδὲὅτιοὐκἐξαἱμάτων, ἐπήγαγεφανερώτερονὅτιοὐδὲἐκθελήματοςσαρκόςεἶτακαὶτοῦτοτελεώτερονἐφηρμήνευσε, προσθεὶςὅτιοὐκἐκθελήματοςἀνδρόςαἷμαγὰρκαὶσάρξ, ὁἀνήρθέλημαδὲνῦννοεῖτὴνἐπιθυμίαν, τὴνσυνουσίαν: in loc. ii. 421. Or perhaps this may be earned somewhat further, and we may better satisfy the climax by regarding the ἐξαἱμάτων as indicating the mere phenomena of physical generation wherever found: then rising to ἐκθελήματοςσαρκός, the instigation of that capacity by sexual desire: then rising still higher to the most exalted instance of that desire, ἐκθελήματοςἀνδρός.

The plural usage of αἱμάτων is only found in one other place in this signification,—Eurip. Ion 693 Dind., 705 Herm., ἔχειδόλοντύχανθʼ ὁπαῖς | ἄλλωντραφεὶςἀφʼ αἱμάτων. The other usage of the plural, for murder, is frequent in the LXX and the classics.

ἀνήρ, in the sense of man generally, is not uncommon; we have in plur. πατὴρἀνδρῶντεθεῶντε, in Hom. passim; and in sing. Il. ν. 321; σ. 432, 433.

ἐκ, remarks De Wette, denotes, the first time, the material—the second and third time, the mediate cause,—the fourth time, the immediate cause, of the generation.

John 1:14

14. καί must not be understood (Chrysost., Grot., Lampe, Theophylact, alli[17].) as giving a reason for the verse before; it is only the same copula as in John 1:1; John 1:3-5; passing on to a further assertion regarding the Word.

[17] alli = some cursive mss.

σὰρξἐγ., became flesh: the most general expression of the great truth that He became man. He became that, of which man is in the body compounded. There is no reference here to the doctrine of the Lord Jesus being the second Adam, as Olshausen thinks; but although there may be no reference to it, it lies at the ground of this wideness of expression. The doctrine in this form may have been, as Lücke observes, alien to John’s habits of thought, but not that which is implied in the doctrine, the taking of the nature of man by the Eternal Word.

The simplicity of this expression is no doubt directed against the Docetæ of the Apostle’s time, who maintained that the Word only apparently took human nature. Therefore he says σὰρξἐγένετο, absolutely and literally became flesh: see ref. 1 John. The expression is not guarded against the interpretation of the Apollinarian heretics, who held that the Lord had not a human soul (ψυχή); but this error was not in the Apostle’s view, and is abundantly refuted elsewhere (see Matthew 26:38 and note on 36–46, and the references there made to John’s Gospel).

ἐσκήνωσεν, ‘sojourned,’ or ‘tabernacled,’ in us. There is no reference to the flesh being the tabernacle of the Spirit;—but the word is one technically used in Scripture to import the dwelling of God among men. See besides reff., Leviticus 26:11-12; Ezekiel 43:7; Ezekiel 37:27; Sir 24:8; Sir 24:10.

ἡμῖν—“hominibus, qui caro sumus,” Bengel.

καὶἐθ. τ. δόξ. αὐτ.] we saw—see 1 John 1:1; 2 Peter 1:16.

This is the Apostle’s testimony as such, see Acts 1:21.

The mention of δόξα seems to be suggested by the word ἐσκήνωσεν, so frequently used of the divine Presence or Shechinah, and cognate in its very form with it: “eædem litteræ in שכינה et σκηνή.” Bengel.

This glory was seen by the disciples, ch. John 2:11; John 11:4: also by Peter, James, and John, specially, on the mount of transfiguration: to which occasion the words ὡςμονογενοῦςπαρὰπατρός seem to refer: but mainly, in the whole converse and teaching and suffering of the Lord, who was full of grace and truth: see below.

On ὡς Chrysostom remarks (Hom. xii. in Joan., vol. viii. p. 66), οὐχὁμοιώσεως, οὐδὲπαραβολῆς, ἀλλὰβεβαιώσεωςκαὶἀναμφισβητήτουδωρισμοῦὡσανεὶἔλεγενἘθ. δόξανοἵανἔπρεπεκαὶεἰκὸςἔχεινμονογενῆκαὶγνήσιονυἱὸνὄντατοῦπάντωνβασιλέωςθεοῦ (see reff.).

μονογ.] This word applied to Christ is peculiar to John: see reff. In the N.T. usage it signifies the only son;—in the LXX, Ps. 21:20, the beloved, and Ps. 24:16, one deserted, left alone. It has been attempted to render the word in John, according to the usage in Ps. 21:20. But obviously in the midst of ideas reaching so far deeper than that of regard, or love, of the Father for the Son, the word cannot be interpreted except in accordance with them. It refers to, and contrasts with, the τέκνατοῦθεοῦ in John 1:12-13. They receive their divine birth by faith in Him and through Him; but HE is the μονογενής of the Father in the higher sense, in which He is γεννηθείς the Son of God.

παρὰπατρός belongs to μονογενοῦς; not to δόξαν, as Theophyl., Erasm., Grot. suppose.

The ellipse is to be supplied by considering the state in which the λόγος here appears,—that of having become σάρξ and dwelling among us.

πλήρ. χάρ. κ. ἀλ.] These words have been variously connected. The view of Erasmus, who places the period at πατρός, and connects these words with Ἰωάννης, scarcely needs refutation, whether we regard the construction, or the meaning of the sentence. The reading πλήρη has probably arisen from a correction, to connect the adj. with δόξαν. Some do this even with πλήρης, but both the construction and the sense are against it. It was not the δόξα, but He Himself, that was πλήρηςχ. κ. ἀλ.: see below, John 1:17. Others suppose πλήρης to refer directly to μονογενοῦς, and justify this by Ephesians 3:17-18.

But besides the unnecessary harshness of this, the sense is against it also; for it cannot be said, ‘we saw His glory, the glory as of one who was full of grace and truth;’ we must have the ὡς referring, in the sense of οἵανἔπρεπε (see above), to some mysterious hidden character which the glory testified, whereas the πλήρηςχ. κ. ἀλ. is itself a mere matter of fact, to which the Apostles themselves could (John 1:17) bear witness. Another construction is (as usually done and in E. V.) to take καὶ … πατρός as parenthetical, and connect πλήρης immediately with ἐσκήνωσεν. Such parentheses are common in the style of this Gospel: see ch. John 6:22-24; John 11:2; John 19:23-24; ib. John 19:31.

But by far the best is, to regard πλήρης as referring to αὐτοῦ, by an anomaly in concord often found in the N.T. (see Luke 20:27 note;Luke 24:47), and especially in the Apocalypse,—cf. Revelation 1:4 alli[18]. fr.

[18] alli = some cursive mss.

χάρ. κ. ἀλ.] Not = χάριτοςἀληθινῆς, which destroys the precision of the expression, and itself conveys no sense whatever; but setting out the two sides of the divine manifestation in Christ,—χάρις, as the result of Love to mankind,—ἀλήθεια (see reff. and ch. John 14:6), as the unity, purity, and light of His own Character.

John 1:15

15. The testimony of John, so important as being the fulfilment of the very object for which he was ἀπεσταλμένοςπαρὰθεοῦ, is in this prologue ranged, so to speak, parallel with the assertions and testimony of the Evangelist himself. So that this verse does not interrupt the train of thought, but confirms by this important testimony the assertion ὁλόγοςσὰρξἐγ., shewing that John bore witness to His præ-existence. Then (John 1:16) the πλήρ. χ. κ. ἀλ. is again taken up. Euthymius paraphrases: εἰκαὶμὴἐγώ, φησί, δοκῶτισινἴσωςἀξιόπιστος, ἀλλὰπρὸἐμοῦὁἸωάννηςμαρτυρεῖπερὶτῆςθεότητοςαὐτοῦ, Ἰωάννηςἐκεῖνος, οὗτὸὄνομαμέγακαὶπεριβόητονπαρὰπᾶσιτοῖςἸουδαίοις.

μαρτυρεῖ, present, for solemnity—as part of the testimony to Him, not only once given, but still subsisting.

κέκραγεν] crieth (the perfect being, in sense, present; ‘hath cried,’ so that the voice is still sounding), see ch. John 7:37: “clamat Johannes cum fiducia et gaudio, uti magnum præconem decet.” Bengel.

οὗτοςἦνὃνεἶπον …] This form of the words seems to shew, as indeed would appear from the announcement of his own office by the Baptist, that he had uttered these words in the power of the Spirit concerning Him whose forerunner he was before he saw and recognized Him in the flesh. Then, on doing so, he exclaimed, This was He of whom I said, &c. This view seems to be borne out by his own statement, John 1:33, and by the order of the narrative in Matthew 3:11-13.

ὀπίσωμ. ἐρχ.] In point of time; not of birth merely or principally, nor of commencement of official life: but, inasmuch as John was His Forerunner, on account of official position.

ἔμπροσθένμ. γέγονεν] The E. V. is here very accurate,—is preferred before me; the γέγονεν setting forth the advancement to official dignity before which John’s office waned and decreased (ch. John 3:30), which took place even while John’s course was being fulfilled. The only objection to ‘preferred’ is, its possible ambiguity. Even Dr. Johnson has fallen into the mistake, in his Dictionary, of quoting this passage as an instance of the sense “to love more than another.” [‘Taketh place,’] ‘is advanced,’ ‘hath come to be’ (which however again is ambiguous), are other possible renderings.

This sense of ἔμπροσθεν (besides reff.) is justified by classical usage in Plato, who uses ἔμπροσθεντιθέναι for præponere, Legg. vii. 805. See also i. 631; ver. 743. Also Demosthenes, κατὰΔιονυσοδώρου, p. 1296. 26, … τὰςαἰτίαςτῶνἡδικηκότωνἔμπροσθενοὔσαςτοῦδικαίου.

ὅτιπρῶτόςμουἦν] The only sense which these words will bear, is, because (or, for, but better because) He was (not ἐγένετο, but ἦν as in John 1:1) before Me; i.e. ‘He existed, was in being, before me.’ The question raised by Lücke and De Wette, whether it is probable that the Baptist had, or expressed such views of the præ-existence of Christ, is not one for us to deal with, in the face of so direct a testimony as is given to the fact, here and in ch. John 3:27 ff. In all probability, the Evangelist was himself a disciple of the Baptist: and if he has given us a fuller and somewhat differing account of his testimony to Christ, it is because his means of information were ampler than those of the other Evangelists. The questioners seem to forget that the Baptist was divinely raised up and commissioned, and full of the Holy Ghost, and spoke in that power; his declarations were not therefore merely conclusions which he had arrived at by natural means,—the study of the prophecies, &c. (Lücke, p. 353): but inspirations and revelations of the Spirit. This last is fully recognized by Olshausen (ii. 61).

John 1:16

16. Origen (in Evang. Johan. tom. vi. 2, vol. iv. p. 102) blames Heracleon for terminating the testimony of John at the end of Joh 1:17, and makes it continue to the end of Joh 1:18. But it can hardly be that his testimony extends beyond John 1:15, for ἡμεῖςπάντες would bear no very definite meaning, and the assertions in John 1:17 would be alien from the character of the Baptist, belonging as they do to the more mature development of Christian doctrines. I cannot doubt that this and the following verses belong to the Evangelist, and are a carrying onwards of his declarations concerning the divine Word.

John 1:15 is not parenthetical, but confirmatory of Joh 1:14, and this verse grounds itself on the fact of Joh 1:14, corroborated by the testimony of Joh 1:15,—that He dwelt among us, and that we saw His glory, full of grace and truth.

τὸπλήρωμα is that of which He was πλήρης, John 1:14, and is not connected with the Gnostic pleroma at all. See reff.

ἡμεῖςπάντες] All who believe on Him: see John 1:12.

ἐλάβομεν, καί] received, and that … ‘our relation to Him has been that of recipients out of His fulness, and the thing received has been’.… So Herod. i. 102, ἔχωνδύοταῦταἔθνεα, καὶἀμφότεραἰσχυρά.

χάρινἀντὶχάριτος] The ancient interpretation, τὴνκαινὴνδιαθήκηνἀντὶτῆςπαλαιᾶς (Euthym[19]), is certainly wrong, for the ἐλάβομεν is spoken entirely of the times of the Incarnate Word: and besides, ὁνόμος and χάρις are distinctly opposed to one another in the next verse.

[19] Euthymius Zigabenus, 1116

The prep. ἀντί is properly used of any thing which supersedes another, or occupies its place. This is in fact its ordinary usage when exchange is spoken of: the possession of the thing gotten succeeds to, supersedes, the possession of the thing given in exchange, and I possess τοῦτοἀντὶἐκείνου. Thus also we have received χάρινἀντὶχάριτος continual accessions of grace; new grace coining upon and superseding the former. Thus in Theognis, Sentt. 343 ff. (Lücke), τεθναίηνδʼ εἰμήτικακῶνἄμπαυμαμεριμνέων | εὑροίμην, δοίηςδʼ ἀντʼ ἀνιῶνἀνίας. And Chrysostom, de Sacerdotio, 6. 13, vol. i. p. 435, σὺδέμεἐκπέμπεις, ἑτέρανἀνθʼ ἑτέραςφροντίδαἐνθείς. Also Philo, i. 254, speaking of this very word χάρις:—τὰςπρώταςἀεὶχάριτας … ἐπισχὼνκαὶταμιευσάμενοςεἰσαῦθιςἑτέραςἀντὶἐκείνωνκαὶτρίταςἀντὶδευτέρων, καὶἀεὶνέαςἀντὶπαλαιοτέρων, τότεμὲνδιαφορούσας, τότεδʼ αὖκαὶτὰςαὐτὰςἐπιδίδωσι.

John 1:17

17. The connexion of this verse with the foregoing lies in the words τοῦπληρώμ. αὐτοῦ (John 1:16), and in χάριςκ. ἀλ. (John 1:14). ‘We received from His fulness continual additions of grace, because that fulness is not, like the law, a positive enactment, finite and circumscribed, of which it could be said that it ἐδόθη, but the bringing in of grace and truth, which ἐγένετο by Jesus Christ.’

ἐδόθη and ἐγένετο have been variously distinguished,—αὐθεντικὸνμὲντὸἐγένετο, δουλικὸνδὲτὸἐδόθη, Theophyl. Similarly Bengel, “Mosis non sua est lex; Christi sua est gratia et veritas.” Clem. Alex[20] Pæd. i. 7, p. 134 [21], says: διὸκαίφησινἡγραφὴ “ὁνόμοςδιὰΜωυσέωςἐδόθη,” οὐχὶὑπὸΜωυσέως, ἀλλὰὑπὸμὲντοῦλόγου, διὰΜωυσέωςδὲτοῦθεράποντοςαὐτοῦδιὸκαὶπρόσκαιροςἐγίνετο, ἡδὲἀΐδιοςχάριςκαὶἡἀλήθειαδιὰἸησοῦχριστοῦἐγένετο, κ.τ.λ. Origen (in Joan. tom. vi. c. 3, vol. iv. p. 107) speaks very similarly. But the distinction laid down above, which is hinted at by De Wette, seems to me to be the most obvious, and best suited to the context, where the πλήρωμα of Christ is set against the narrowness of positive enactment in the law. Certainly, the distinction must not be lost sight of, nor denied, as Lücke attempts to do: for Bengel truly observes: “Nullus philosophus tam accurate verba ponit, differentiamque eorum observat, quam Johannes, in hoc præsertim capite.”

[20] Alex. Clement of Alexandria, fl. 194

[21] By these symbols are designated the portions of two ancient MSS., discernible (as also are fragments of Ulphilas’ gothic version) under the later writing of a volume known as the Codex Carolinus in the Ducal Library at Wolfenbüttel. P ( A) contains fragments of each of the Gospels. Q (GUELPH. B) fragments of Luke and John. Both are probably of the sixth century. They were edited by F. A. Knittel in 1762; and, more thoroughly, by Tischendorf in 1860 [1869], Monumenta Sacra, vol. iii. [vi.]

χάριςκ. ἀλ.] I must again caution the student against any such wholly inadequate explanations as that these words are put ‘per hendiadyn’ for χάριςἀληθινή. It is in this way that the depths of Scripture have been covered over by the rubbish of expositors. Such was not the method of investigation pursued by the great men of former centuries: witness Origen in loc.: εἰγὰρἸησοῦςἐστινὁφάσκων “ἐγώεἰμιἡἀλήθεια,” πῶςἡἀλήθειαδιὰἸησοῦχριστοῦγίνεται; αὐτὸςγάρτιςδιʼ ἑαυτοῦοὐγίνεται. ἀλλὰνοητέονὅτιἡαὐτοαλήθειαἡοὐσιώδηςκαὶἵνʼ οὕτωςεἴπωπρωτότυποςτῆςἐνταῖςλογικαῖςψυχαῖςἀληθείας … οὐχὶδιὰἸησοῦχριστοῦἐγένετο, οὐδʼ ὅλωςδιάτινος, ἀλλʼ ὑπὸθεοῦἐγένετοὡςκαὶὁλόγοςοὐδιάτινος, ὁἐνἀρχῇπρὸςτὸνθεόν, καὶἡσοφία, ἣνἔκτισενἀρχὴνὁδῶναὐτοῦὁθεός, οὐδιάτινος, οὕτωςοὐδὲἡἀλήθειαδιάτινος. ἡδὲπαρʼ ἀνθρώποιςἀλήθειαδιὰἸησοῦχριστοῦἐγένετοοἷονἡἐνΠαύλῳἀλ. καὶτοῖςἀποστόλοιςδιὰἸησοῦχριστοῦἐγένετο (vol. iv. p. 107).

John 1:18

18. The connexion is: ‘Moses could not give out of the πλήρωμα of grace and truth, for he had no immediate sight of God, and no man can have: there is but One who can ἐξηγεῖσθαιθεόν, the μονογενὴςυἱός, who is no mere man, but abides in the bosom of the Father.’

θεὸνοὐδ. ἑώρ. π.] The sight of God here meant, is not only bodily sight (though of that it is true, see Exodus 33:20; 1 Timothy 6:16), but intuitive and infallible knowledge, which enables Him who has it to declare the nature and will of God: see ch. John 3:11; John 6:46; John 14:7.

The Evangelist speaks in this verse in accordance with the sayings of the gnosis whose phraseology he has adopted: τίςἑώρακεναὐτὸνκαὶἐκδιηγήσεται; Sir 43:31.

ὁμον. υἱός] As regards the reading μονογενὴςθεός, the authorities for and against it will be found in the digest. It seems to have arisen from a confusion of the contracted forms of writing, Υ[22] and Θ[23]. The question, which reading to adopt, is one which, in the balance of authorities, must be provisionally decided by the consideration that as far as we can see, we should be introducing great harshness into the sentence, and a new and strange term into Scripture, by adopting θεός: a consequence which ought to have no weight whatever where authority is overpowering, but may fairly be weighed where this is not so. The “præstat procliviori ardua” finds in this case a legitimate limit.

[22] The CODEX , preserved in the Imperial Library at Paris, MS. Gr. No. 9. It is a Codex rescriptus or palimpsest, consisting of the works of Ephraem the Syrian written over the MS. of extensive fragments of the Old and New Testaments2. It seems to have come to France with Catherine de’ Medici, and to her from Cardinal Nicolas Ridolfi. Tischendorf thinks it probable that he got it from Andrew John Lascaris, who at the fall of the Eastern Empire was sent to the East by Lorenzo de’ Medici to preserve such MSS. as had escaped the ravages of the Turks.

This is confirmed by the later corrections (C3) in the MS., which were evidently made at Constantinople3. But from the form of the letters, and other peculiarities, it is believed to have been written at Alexandria, or at all events, where the Alexandrine dialect and method of writing prevailed. Its text is perhaps the purest example of the Alexandrine text,—holding a place about midway between the Constantinopolitan MSS. and most of those of the Alexandrine recension. It was edited very handsomely in uncial type, with copious dissertations, &c., by Tischendorf, in 1843. He assigns to it an age at least equal to A, and places it also in the fifth century. Corrections were written in, apparently in the sixth and ninth centuries: these are respectively cited as C2, C3.

[23] The CODEX , preserved in the Imperial Library at Paris, MS. Gr. No. 9. It is a Codex rescriptus or palimpsest, consisting of the works of Ephraem the Syrian written over the MS. of extensive fragments of the Old and New Testaments2. It seems to have come to France with Catherine de’ Medici, and to her from Cardinal Nicolas Ridolfi. Tischendorf thinks it probable that he got it from Andrew John Lascaris, who at the fall of the Eastern Empire was sent to the East by Lorenzo de’ Medici to preserve such MSS. as had escaped the ravages of the Turks.

ὁὢνεἰςτ. κόλπον] The expression must not be understood as referring to the custom of reclining ἐντῷκόλπῳ, as in ch. John 13:23: for by this explanation confusion is introduced into the imagery, and the real depth of the truth hidden. The expression signifies, as Chrysostom observes, συγγένειακαὶἑνότηςτῆςοὐσίας:—and is derived from the fond and intimate union of children and parents.

The present participle, as in ch. John 3:13, is used to signify essential truth, without any particular regard to time.

On the use of εἰς, see reff. It is not ‘put for’ ἐν: indeed it would be well for the student to bear in mind as a general rule, that no word or expression is ever ‘put for’ another: words are the index of thoughts,—and where an unusual construction is found, it points to some reason in the mind of the writer for using it, which reason is lost in the ordinary shallow method of accounting for it by saying that it is ‘put for’ some other word. So here, εἰςτὸνκόλπον is not = ἐντῷκόλπῳ, but is a carrying on of the thought expressed in John 1:1, by πρὸςτὸνθεόν: it is a pregnant construction, involving in it the begetting of the Son and His being the λόγος of the Father,—His proceeding forth from God. It is a similar expression, on the side of His Unity with the Father, to εἰμὶπαρὰτοῦθεοῦ, on the side of His manifestation to men. We have similar expressions, uniting the verb of rest with the preposition of motion, in ἐςθρόνουςἕζοντο, Od. δ. 51; εἰςἀνάγκηνκείμεθʼ, Eur. Iph. [24]. 624: see Kühner, Gr. Gr. § 622.

[24] CODEX 1, in the Library of the Propaganda at Rome, of the fifth century (probably). Contains fragments of Luke and John with a Sahidic version. The portions John 6:28-67; John 7:6 to John 8:31 were published by A. A. Georgi, at Rome, in 1789: and examined by Tischendorf. This Græco-Egyptian MS. also contains a portion of St.

Luke, Luke 22:20 to Luke 23:20, which was first brought to my notice by Dr. Tregelles, as being mentioned by Zoega in his “Catalogus Codicum Copticorum MSS. qui in Museo Borgiano Velitris adservantur.” My brother, the Rev. Bradley H. Alford, happening to be at Rome, was fortunate enough to obtain permission to collate this ancient fragment, and sent me the collation, from which the readings were, in Edn. 4 of this Volume, first published. Two other portions of the same MS. were once in the possession of C. G.

Woide and were published by Ford in the Appendix to the Codex Alexandrinus, Oxford, 1799. They comprise Luke 12:15 to Luke 13:32; John 8:33-42.

ἐκεῖνος] ‘He, and none else:’ an emphatic exclusive expression.

ἐξηγήσατο] declared, better than ‘hath declared,’ as E. V. ἐξηγέομαι, ἐξήγησις, and ἐξηγητής (Genesis 41:8; Genesis 41:24), are technical terms used of the declaration of divine matters. Wetstein has collected abundance of passages in illustration of this usage. See also Müller’s Eumenides, Excursus D, on the ἐξηγηταί. But Lücke (and I think rightly) believes it more in accordance with the simple style of John to take the word here in its ordinary, not its technical meaning.

The object to be supplied after the verb is most likely αὐτόν, i.e. τὸνθεόν. De Wette thinks this too definite, and supplies ‘that which He has seen,’ as in ch. John 3:11. Lücke supplies τὴνχάριτακ. ἀλ., as being ‘that which He has seen;’ but De Wette well observes that χάρις is more matter of revelation by act, than of ἐξήγησις. Euthymius’s explanation, ἐδίδαξενὅτιθεὸνοὐδεὶςἑώρακεπώποτε, is certainly wrong. See Matthew 11:27.

John 1:19-2

19–2:11. OF CHRIST TO THE WORLD: BY THE WITNESS OF JOHN (John 1:19-40): BY HIMSELF (John 1:41 to John 2:11).

John 1:20

20. ὡμολόγησεν, he openly and formally confessed. This emphatic notice of his declaration seems to be introduced not with any view of removing too high an estimate of John’s work and office, as sometimes supposed, but rather to shew the importance of his testimony, which was so publicly and officially delivered,—that the Messiah was come (see ch. John 5:33-35); and the way in which he depreciated himself in comparison with Him who came after him.

John 1:21

21. σὺοὖντί; equivalent to τίλέγειςπερὶσεαυτοῦ; John 1:22.

Ἡλίαςεἶ;] The whole appearance of John reminded them of Elias:—see Matthew 3:4, and compare 2 Kings 1:8. Besides, his announcement that the Kingdom of God was at hand, naturally led them to the prophecy Malachi 4:5, Lightfoot cites from the Rabbinical books testimonies that the Jews expected a general purification or baptism before the coming of the Messiah (from Ezekiel 36:25-26, and Zechariah 13:1), and that it would be administered by Elias.

κ. λ. Οὐκεἰμί] The right explanation of this answer seems to be the usual one,—that the deputation asked the question in a mistaken and superstitious sense, meaning Elias bodily come down from heaven, who was expected to forerun and anoint the Messias. (Our Lord seems to refer to the same extravagant notion in Matthew 11:14, εἰθέλετεδέξασθαι, αὐτόςἐστινἩλ. ὁμέλλωνἔρχεσθαι.) In this sense, John was not Elias; nor indeed in any other sense, was he Elias:—but only (Luke 1:17) ἐνπνεύματικαὶδυνάμειἩλίου.

ὁπροφ. εἶσύ;] From the prophecy of Moses, Deuteronomy 18:15; Deuteronomy 18:18, the Jews expected some particular prophet to arise,—distinct from the Messiah (this distinction however was not held by all, see ch. John 6:14),—whose coming was, like that of Elias, intimately connected with that of the Messiah Himself: see ch. John 7:40-41. In Matthew 16:14 we have ‘Jeremiah, or one of the prophets’ apparently = this expected prophet. There seem to have been various opinions about him;—all however agreeing in this, that he was to be one of the old prophets raised from the dead (see also 2Ma 2:1-8). This John was not: and he therefore answers this also in the negative.

John 1:22

22. Notice—they ever ask about his person: he ever refers them to his office. He is no one—a voice merely: it is the work of God, the testimony to Christ which is every thing. So the formalist ever in the church asks Who is he? while the witness for Christ only exalts, only cares for Christ’s work.

John 1:23

23. These words, which by the other Evangelists are spoken of John as the fulfilment of the prophecy, appear from this place to have been first so used by himself. They introduce the great closing section of the prophecy of Isaiah (ch. 40–66) so full of the rich promises and revelations of the Messiah and His kingdom.

εὐθύνατε is used as compendiously expressing ἑτοιμάσατε … εὐθείαςποιεῖτε.

By implication, the Baptist, quoting this opening prophecy of himself, announces the approaching fulfilment of the whole section.

John 1:24

24. The reason of this explanation being added is not very clear. Lücke, with whom De Wette agrees, refers it to the apparent hostility of the next enquiry: but I confess I cannot see that it is more hostile than the preceding. Luthardt thinks that it imports, there were some ἀπεσταλμένοι present, who belonged to the sect of the Pharisees (ἦσανδὲκαὶἐκτῶνΦαρ. ἀπεσταλμένοι), which the words will hardly bear: see below. Might it not be to throw light on their question about baptizing, as the Pharisees were the most precise about all ceremonies, lustrations, &c.? Origen makes this a new deputation: but he is plainly wrong: see the οὖν below. Euthymius gives another reason yet: ἐπεσημήνατοκαὶτὴναἵρεσιναὐτῶν, ἐμφαίνωντὸπερίεργοντούτωνκαὶσκολιόν.

Abandoning the οἱ (see var. readd.), we must render, And they (i.e. the whole deputation) were (or had been) sent by the Pharisees; which will make it more probable that the explanation refers to the nature of the following question. ἀποστέλλομαι … ἐκ has occurred above, John 1:19, which gives additional probability to the reading of the text.

John 1:25

25. On οὐδὲ … οὐδέ, see note on John 1:13. This question shews probably that they did not interpret Isaiah 40:3 of any herald of the Messiah. They regarded baptism as a significant token of the approach of the Messianic Kingdom, and they asked, ‘Why baptizest thou, if thou art no forerunner of the Messiah?’

John 1:26-27

26, 27. [ὁ] ὀπίσωμουἐρχ. is the subject of the sentence; He that cometh after me, &c., stands among you.

The insertions (see var. readd.) have been made by some one not aware of this, and wishing to square the verse with John 1:15; John 1:30.

The answer of the Baptist seems not to correspond to the question in John 1:25. This was noticed as early as Heracleon (Origen in Joan. tom. vi. 15, vol. iv. p. 131), who said, ἀποκρίνεταιὁἸωάννηςτοῖςἐκτῶνΦαρισαίωνπεμφθεῖσιν, οὐπρὸςὃἐκεῖνοιἐπηρώτων, ἀλλʼ ὃαὐτὸςἐβούλετο. This however is impugned at some length by Origen, but not on very convincing grounds. The truth seems to have been apprehended by Olshausen,—that the declaration of John that the Messiah was standing among them at that moment unknown to them, was an answer to their question demanding a legitimation of his prophetic claims;—a σημεῖον that he was sent from God:—see ch. John 2:18. Olsh. also suggests that this may clear up the saying of the Jews in ch.

John 10:41 (see note there). In repeating this saying at other times (see Matthew 3:11 and [27]), the Baptist plainly states of the Messiah, that he should baptize them with the Holy Ghost (and fire), as here in John 1:33. Here, in speaking to those learned in the offices of the Messiah, he leaves that to be supplied.

[27] When, in the Gospels, and in the Evangelic statement, 1 Corinthians 11:23-25, the sign (║) occurs in a reference, it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in the other Gospels, which will always be found indicated at the head of the note on the paragraph. When the sign (║) is qualified, thus, ‘║ Mk.,’ or ‘║ Mt. Mk.,’ &c., it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in that Gospel or Gospels, but not in the other or others.

λύσωαὐτοῦτ. ἱμ.…] See note on Matthew 3:11.

John 1:28

28. The common reading, Βηθαβαρᾷ, is owing to a conjecture of Origen, the grounds of which he thus states:—ὅτιμὲνσχεδὸνἐνπᾶσιτοῖςἀντιγράφοιςκεῖται “ταῦταἐνΒηθανίᾳἐγένετο” οὐκἀγνοοῦμεν, καὶἔοικετοῦτοκαὶἔτιπρότερονγεγονέναικαὶπαρὰἩρακλεωνιγοῦνΒηθανίανἀνέγνωμεν. ἐπείσθημενδὲμὴδεῖνΒηθανίᾳἀναγινώσκειν, ἀλλὰΒηθαβαρᾷ, γενόμενοιἐντοῖςτόποιςἐπὶἱστορίαντῶνἰχνῶνἸησοῦκαὶτῶνμαθητῶναὐτοῦκαὶτῶνπροφητῶν. Βηθανίαγάρ, ὡςὁαὐτὸςεὐαγγελιστήςφησι, ἡπατρὶςΛαζάρουκαὶΜάρθαςκαὶΜαρίας, ἀπέχειτῶνἹεροσολύμωνσταδίουςδέκαπέντεἧςπόῤῥωἐστὶνὁΙορδάνηςποταμός, ὡςἀπὸσταδίωνπλατεῖλόγῳρπʼ (180). ἀλλʼ οὐδὲὁμώνυμοςτῇΒηθανίᾳτόποςἐστὶνπερὶτὸνἸορδάνηνδείκνυσθαιδὲλέγουσιπαρὰτῇὄχθῃτοῦἸορδάνουτὰΒηθαβαρᾶ, ἔνθαἱστοροῦσιτὸνἸωάννηνβεβαπτικέναι (In Joan. John 6:24, p. 140). He goes on to shew from the etymology of the names that it must have been Bethabara; an argument which modern criticism will not much esteem. It will be seen that his testimony is decisive for the universality and authority of Βηθανίᾳ, while for the other he only produces a tradition, and that only at second-hand; “they say that such a place is shewn.” That no Bethany beyond Jordan was known in his time proves but little;—for 300 eventful years had changed the face of Palestine since these events, and the names and sites of many obscure places may have been forgotten. I abstain from enumerating modern conjectures on the identity of the two, or the etymology of the names, as being indecisive and unprofitable. The objection of Paulus, that πέραντοῦἸορδάνου the Sanhedrim had no authority, appears not to be founded in fact: see Lücke’s Comm. i. 394 ff.

The question whether this testimony of the Baptist is identical with that given by the three other Evangelists, especially by Luke (Luke 3:16), is, after all that has been said on it (Lücke, De Wette, Olshausen, &c.), not of great importance. The whole series of transactions here recorded, from John 1:15 onwards, certainly happened after the baptism of our Lord;—for before that event John did not know Him as ὁἐρχόμενος: and μέσοςὑμῶνστήκει John 1:26 shews that he had so recognized Him (see below on τῇἐπαύρ.): whereas the testimony in Luke 3:16 and [28], is as certainly given before the baptism. But since the great end of John’s mission was to proclaim Him who was coming after him, it is not only probable, but absolutely necessary to suppose, that he should have delivered this testimony often, and under varying circumstances: before the baptism, in the form given by Luke, ἔρχεταιὁἰσχυρ. μουκ.τ.λ., and after it in this form, οὗτοςἦνὃνεἶπον (John 1:15), where his former testimony is distinctly referred to. And among John’s disciples and the multitudes who frequented his baptism, many reports of such his sayings would naturally be current. So that there is neither a real nor even an apparent contradiction between John and the other Evangelists.

[28] When, in the Gospels, and in the Evangelic statement, 1 Corinthians 11:23-25, the sign (║) occurs in a reference, it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in the other Gospels, which will always be found indicated at the head of the note on the paragraph. When the sign (║) is qualified, thus, ‘║ Mk.,’ or ‘║ Mt. Mk.,’ &c., it is signified that the word occurs in the parallel place in that Gospel or Gospels, but not in the other or others.

It is a far more important question, in what part of this narration the forty days’ Temptation is to be inserted. From John 1:19 to ch. John 2:1 there is an unbroken sequence of days distinctly marked. Since then John 1:19 must be understood as happening after the baptism, it must have happened after the Temptation also. And in this supposition there is not the slightest difficulty. But when we have made it, it still remains to say whether at that time our Lord had returned from the Temptation or not.

The general opinion of Harmonists has been, that the approach of Jesus to John in John 1:29 was His return after the Temptation. But this I think questionable, on account of the μέσοςὑμῶνστήκει, John 1:26; which I can only understand literally. I therefore believe that the return from the Temptation to Bethany beyond Jordan had taken place before the deputation arrived.

John 1:29

29. τῇἐπαύριον, the day after. Those who wish to introduce the Temptation between John 1:28-29, interpret it, ‘on some day after.’ Thus Euthym[29] τῇἐπ., μετὰτὴνἀπὸἐρήμουκάθοδοναὐτοῦδηλονότι. But this sense of τῇἐπ., although certainly found in the LXX,—see Genesis 30:33,—is not according to the usage of John (see reff.), and would be quite alien from the precision of this whole portion of the narrative, which, John 1:40, specifies even the hours of the day. I understand it therefore literally, both here and in John 1:35; John 1:44.

[29] Euthymius Zigabenus, 1116

ἐρχ. π. αὐτ.] It is not said whence, or why, or whether for the purpose of an interview, or not; the fact merely is related, for the sake of the testimony which follows. I mention this, because on these points difficulties have been raised.

ἴδεὁἀμν. τ. θ.] This is one of the most important and difficult sayings in the N.T. The question to be answered is, in calling Jesus by so definite a name as ὁἀμνὸςτοῦθεοῦ, to what did John refer? And this question is intimately connected with that of the meaning of the following words, ὁαἴρωντὴνἁμαρτίαντοῦκόσμου.

(α) The title must refer to some known and particular lamb, and cannot be a mere figure for a just and holy man, as Kuinoel and Gabler suppose. It is inconceivable, that ὁἀμνὸςτοῦθεοῦ should in a testimony so precise and formal as this of the Baptist, be nothing but an hyperbole, and that one wholly unprecedented, and to his hearers unintelligible. Had no doctrinal considerations been at stake, we may safely say that this interpretation would never have been proposed. In its bearing on the latter clause of the verse, it is equally untenable. These interpreters make ὁαἴρωντ. ἁμ. τ. κόσ. to mean, “qui pravitatem hominum per vitam suam graviter quidem etsi innocens experietur, sed agni instar mala sibi inflicta patiente et mansueto animo sustinebit” (Gabler); or, “Hic removebit peccata hominum, i. e, pravitatem e terra,” The first of these meanings of αἴρειν is altogether without example:—that cited from 1Ma 13:17, not being applicable. The second, though common enough in other connexions, is never found with ἁμαρτίαν: see reff.

The commonsense account of this part of the matter is:—John wished to point out Jesus as the Messiah: he designates Him as the Lamb of God; he therefore referred to some definite lamb,—revealed by God, sent by God, pleasing to God, or in some meaning especially, τοῦθεοῦ. Whence did this idea come?

(β) Can John have referred to the paschal lamb? Further than that the very use of the name brings in with it the general typical use of the animal, and that thus this particular use may lie in the background, I think not,—and for this reason:—The dominant idea in the paschal sacrifice has no connexion, in any sense of the words, with αἴρειντὴνἁμαρτίαν. However by the light now thrown back on it since the Spirit has opened the things of Christ, we discern this typical meaning in the sprinkling of the blood (see 1 Corinthians 5:7),—in the Jewish mind, no mention being made of sin or the removing of sin in any connexion with the paschal lamb, the two could not be brought forward, in such an announcement as this, in close connexion with one another.

(γ) Can the reference be to the lamb of the daily morning and evening sacrifice? or to the sacrificial lamb generally? With the same reservation as above, I think not: for (1) this expression is too definite to have so general and miscellaneous a reference; (2) of many animals which were used for sacrifice, the lamb was only one, and that one not by any means so prominent as to serve as a type for the whole: and (3) the lamb (with only two exceptions, Leviticus 4:32; Numbers 6:14, in both which cases it was to be a female, as if for express distinction from the ordinary use of the lamb) was never used for a sin-offering, properly so called and known. The question is not, whether Christ be not typified by all these offerings, which we now know to be the case (1 Peter 1:19 alli[30].), but whether the Baptist is likely to have referred to them in such words as these.

[30] alli = some cursive mss.

(δ) There remains but one reference, and that is, to the prophetic announcement in Isaiah 53:7. The whole of that latter section of Isaiah, as before remarked on John 1:23, is Messianic, and was so understood by the Jews (see my Hulsean Lectures for 1841, pp. 62–66). We have there the servant of God (= the Messiah) compared to a lamb brought to the slaughter (Isaiah 53:7), and it is said of Him (Isaiah 53:4), οὗτοςτὰςἁμαρτίαςἡμῶνφέρεικαὶπερὶἡμῶνὀδυνᾶται—John 1:5, αὐτὸςδὲἐτραυματίσθηδιὰτὰςἁμαρτίαςἡμῶν—John 1:6, καὶκύριοςπαρέδωκεναὐτὸνταῖςἁμαρτίαιςἡμῶν—John 1:8, αἴρεταιἀπὸτῆςγῆςἡζωὴαὐτοῦ, ἀπὸτῶνἀνομιῶντοῦλαοῦμουἤχθηεἰςθάνατον—John 1:12, καὶαὐτὸςἁμαρτίαςπολλῶνἀνήνεγκεκαὶδιὰτὰςἀνομίαςαὐτῶνπαρεδόθη. So that here, and here only, we have the connexion of which we are in search,—between the lamb, and the bearing or taking away of sin,—expressly stated, so that it could be formally referred to in a testimony like the present. And I have therefore no doubt that this was the reference.

(ε) We have now to enquire into the specific meaning of ὁαἴρωντὴνἁμαρτίαντοῦκόσμου (see above under (α)). αἴρειν answers to the Heb. נָשָׂא, which is used frequently in the O.T. in connexion with חֵטְא or עָוֹן, in the sense of peccati pœnas luere:—see Leviticus 24:15; Numbers 5:31; Numbers 14:34; Ezekiel 4:5; Ezekiel 23:35 alli[31].:—and variously rendered in the LXX by ἀναφέρειν, as above, Isaiah 53:11-12, or φέρειν, ib. Isaiah 1:4,—or λαμβάνειν, Ezekiel 4:5; Ezekiel 18:19; Numbers 5:31; Numbers 14:34; Leviticus 24:15. ἀφαιρεῖν (which though not a compound of αἴρειν, seems to have almost been adopted as such, the actual compound ἀπαίρειν being intransitive) is used in the sense of ‘taking away of sin and its guilt,’ but taking it away by expiation: see Exodus 34:7; Leviticus 10:17; Numbers 14:18.

[31] alli = some cursive mss.

The word in our verse will bear either of these meanings, or both conjoined; for if the Lamb is to suffer the burden of the sins of the world, and to take away sin and its guilt by expiation, this result must be accomplished by the offering of Himself.

But (ζ) it is objected, that this view of a suffering Messiah and of expiation by the sufferings of one, was alien from the Jewish expectations;—and that the Baptist (see Matthew 11:2 ff. and note) cannot himself have had any such view. But the answer to this may be found in the fact that the view, though not generally prevalent among the Jews, was by no means unknown to many. The application by the early Jewish expositors of Isaiah 53 to the Messiah, could hardly have been made, without the idea of the suffering and death of their Messiah being presented to their minds. The same would be the case in the whole sacrificial œconomy:—the removal of guilt (which was universally ascribed to the Messiah) by suffering and death would be familiarized to their minds. Traces of this are found in their own writings. In 2Ma 7:37-38, the last of the seven brethren thus speaks before his martyrdom: ἐγὼδὲκαθάπεροἱἀδελφοίμουκαὶσῶμακαὶψυχὴνπροδίδωμιπερὶτῶνπατρίωννόμων, ἐπικαλούμενοςτὸνθεὸνἵλεωνταχὺτῷἔθνειγενέσθαι, καὶσὲμετὰἑτασμῶνκαὶμαστίγωνἐξομολογήσασθαι, διότιμόνοςαὐτὸςθεόςἐστιν. ἐνἐμοὶδὲκαὶτοῖςἀδελφοῖςμουστῆναιτὴντοῦπαντοκράτοροςὀργὴντὴνἐπὶτὸσύμπανἡμῶνγένοςδικαίωςἐπηγμένην.

And Josephus, de Maccab. § 17 (4Ma 17:22) says of these same martyrs. that they were ὥσπερἀντίψυχοντῆςτοῦἔθνουςἁμαρτίας. καὶδιὰτοῦαἵματοςτῶνεὐσεβῶνἐκείνωνκαὶ (τοῦ) ἱλαστηρίουτοῦθανάτουαὐτῶνἡθείαπρόνοιατὸνἸσραὴλπροκακωθένταδιέσωσε. The whole history of the sacrifices and devotions of the heathen world abounds with examples of the same idea variously brought forward; and to these the better-informed among the Jews could be no strangers. And as to the Baptist himself, we must not forget that the power of the Holy Spirit which enabled him to recognize by a special sign the Redeemer, also spoke in him, and therefore his words would not be the result of education merely, or his own reasoning, but of that kind of intuitive perception of divine truth, which those have had who have been for any special purpose the organs of the Holy Ghost.

And as regards Matthew 11:3, the doubt on the mind of John there expressed does not appear to have touched at all on the matter now in question,—but to have rather been a form of expressing his impatience at the slow and quiet progress of Him of whom he expected greater things and a more rapid public manifestation.

See this whole enquiry pursued at greater length in Lücke’s Commentary, vol. i. pp. 401–416, from whence the substance of this note is taken.

John 1:30

30. See on John 1:15.

John 1:31

31. On the apparent discrepancy between this statement, οὐκῃδειναὐτόν, and St. Matthew’s narrative, I have stated my view on Matthew 3:14. Both accounts are entirely consistent with the supposition that John had been from youth upwards acquainted with our Lord, and indeed may have in his own mind believed Him to be the Christ:—but having (John 1:33) a special sign appointed him, by which to recognize Him as such,—until that sign was given, he, like the rest of the people (κἀγώ, I also, see John 1:26), had no certain knowledge of Him. Lücke’s whole note proceeds upon the unworthy view of the historical character of the Gospels which his school has adopted. The same may be said of Neander, Leben Jesu, pp. 86 ff.

De Wette gives the sense well: “This testimony (John 1:30) does not rest upon my long personal acquaintance with Him, but on that which happened during my work of baptizing.”

ἀλλʼ ἵναφαν.] Justin Martyr represents Trypho the Jew saying, χριστὸςδὲεἰκαὶγεγέννηται, καὶἔστιπου, ἄγνωστόςἐστι, καὶοὐδὲαὐτόςπωἑαυτὸνἐπίσταται, οὐδὲἔχειδύναμίντινα, μέχριςἂνἐλθὼνἩλίαςχρίσῃαὐτὸνκαὶφανερόνπᾶσιποιήσῃ, § 8, p. 110. But our narrative is not built upon any such Jewish belief, for it is evidently only as a spiritual preparation, through repentance, for the knowledge of Him, that John regarded his baptism, not as any thing ἐκεῖνονφανερὸνπᾶσιποιοῦν.

ἐν [τῷ] ὕδ., hardly distinguishable in English from ἐνὕδ., but importing, ‘in the water which it is my custom to use,’—‘in the water in which you see I do baptize.’

John 1:32-33

32, 33. “Quæ sequuntur, erant testimonii: quæ ex John 1:29 sq. dicuntur, erant demonstrationis ex testimonio. Cohærentibus Baptistæ verbis Evangelista quasi parenthesin interponit: καὶἐμαρτύρησενἸωάννηςλέγων.” Bengel.

The occurrence related by John happened at the baptism of Jesus, which is therefore here pre-supposed as known. Although this has been questioned (Usteri, Nachrichten über den Täufer J. u.s.w., cited by Lücke, i. 423), I cannot see how it can be reasonably doubted. We cannot surely suppose that such a sign was twice shewn. On the appearance itself, see note Matthew 3:16. The account here given confirms the view which I have there maintained, that the appearance was confined to our Lord and the Baptist: he was to receive the sign, and then to testify to the others, who were not themselves yet the bearers, but the recipients of testimony:—κατάτιναπνευματικὴνθεωρίανὤφθημόνῳτῷἸωάννῃ. Theod. Mops[32] p. 736.

[32] Mops. Theodore, Bp. of Mopsuestia, 399–428

τεθέαμαι, perf. I have seen, in reference to the sign divinely intimated to him, in the abiding fulfilment of which he now stood. So again below, John 1:34.

ἔμεινενἐπʼ αὐτ.] By some appearance which is not described, the Holy Spirit was manifested to John as not removing from Jesus again, but abiding on Him. But we are not to understand that he had seen the Spirit descending on others, and not abiding; for (see ch. John 7:39: Acts 1:5; Acts 19:2 ff.) the gift of the Holy Spirit did not ordinarily accompany John’s baptism, but only in this one case; and its occurrence was to point out to him the Messiah.

οὗτ. ἐστ. ὁβαπτ. ἐνπν. ἁγ.] Here again we seem to have a reference to the synoptic cycle of narratives, for our Evangelist has not before mentioned this office of the Messiah.

John 1:34

34. A solemn reiteration of his testimony, after the mention of the giving of this token by Him who sent him;—And I have seen (accordingly) &c.

The token must have been given to the Baptist by a special revelation, which also revealed to him his own errand and office; so Luke 3:2, ἐγένετοῥῆμαθεοῦἐπὶἸωάννηντὸνΖαχ. υἱὸνἐντῇἐρήμῳ.

μεμαρτύρηκα is stronger than μαρτυρῶ—I have seen (on the perf. see above, John 1:32) and have borne testimony—it is a reference to his testimony at the time, as a thing on record in their memories, and as still continuing.

ὁυἱ. τ. θεοῦ (see John 1:18) = the λόγος made flesh, the Messiah.

On the import of the descent of the Spirit on Jesus at His baptism, those who can do so should consult Lücke’s very able Excursus, i. 433–443. In this commentary, see notes on Luke 2:41-52.

I may just remark, that the Personal Logos, Who σὰρξἐγένετο in our Lord, and was subjected to all the laws of human development in infancy, childhood, youth,—evermore in an especial degree under the leading of the Holy Spirit, by whose agency the Incarnation had taken place,—was the Recipient (τὸδεχόμενον) of this fulness of the indwelling of the Holy Ghost: and that herein consisted the real depth and propriety of this sign;—the abiding of the Spirit without measure (ch. John 3:34) on Him indicated beyond doubt that He was the λόγοςσὰρξγεγονώς,—for no mere human intelligence could be thus receptive of the Holy Spirit of God;—we receive Him only as we can, only as far as our receptivity extends,—by measure; but HE, into the very fulness and infinite capacities of His Divine Being.

John 1:35

35. τῇἐπ.] See on John 1:29. I can hardly suppose with De Wette, that these two had been absent on the preceding day. Rather, what they then heard seems to have made a powerful impression on their minds, so that the repetition of the notice is now the signal for them to follow Jesus. (On the second disciple, see below on John 1:41.)

John 1:37

37. We must not understand ἠκολ. in the narrower sense which it bears when they left all and followed Him; but here only of mechanical going after Him, βουλόμενοιπεῖρανλαβεῖναὐτοῦ, Euthym[33]

[33] Euthymius Zigabenus, 1116

John 1:39

39. On τίζητ. Euthym[34] remarks, οὐκἀγνοῶν, ὁτοῖςλογισμοῖςτῶνἀνθρώπωνἐμβατεύων, ἀλλʼ ἵναδιὰτῆςἐρωτήσεωςοἰκειώσηταιτούτους, καὶπαράσχῃθαῤῥεῖν. εἰκὸςγὰραὐτοὺςἐρυθριᾶνἔτικαὶἀγωνιᾶν, ὡςἀγνῶτας.

[34] Euthymius Zigabenus, 1116

John 1:40

40. They ask ποῦμ., βουλόμενοικαταμόναςἐντυχεῖναὐτῷκαὶμεθʼ ἡσυχίας. Euthym[35] They enquire after His place of lodging for the night, intending to visit Him there; or perhaps He was then apparently going thither, as it was late in the day. But He furthers their wish by inviting them to follow, and they will see.

[35] Euthymius Zigabenus, 1116

ὡςδεκάτη] i.e. 4 P.M., according to the Jewish reckoning; not, as some have thought, 10 A.M., according to that of the Romans. Our Evangelist appears always to reckon according to the Jewish method, see ch. John 4:6; John 4:52; John 19:14, and notes, but especially ch. John 11:9. And as Lücke remarks (i. 446), even among the Romans, the division of the day into twelve equal hours was, though not the civil, the popular way of computing time. So Persius, Sat. iii. 3: “Stertimus … quinta dum linea tangitur umbra.”

They remained with Him the rest of that day, which would be four or five hours, and need not strictly be limited by sunset.

John 1:41

41. Who the other disciple was, is not certain: but considering (1) that the Evangelist never names himself in his Gospel, and (2) that this account is so minutely accurate as to specify even the hours of the day, and in all respects bears marks of an eye-witness, and again (3) that this other disciple, from this last circumstance, certainly would have been named, had not the name been suppressed for some especial reason, we are justified in inferring that it was the Evangelist himself. And such has been the general opinion. Euthymius gives an alternative which is hardly probable: ἢδιότιοὐκἦντῶνἐπισήμωνκαὶγνωρίμωνἐκεῖνος, ἢὅτιαὐτὸςἦνὁταῦταγράφων.

John 1:42

42. ἴδιον not merely “for the possessive pronoun” (according to Winer, § 22. 7), but referring to πρῶτον, and furnishing a reason for it.

μεσσίαν = מָשִׁיחַ = not ὁχριστός, but χριστός: being the identification simply of the two words, not here of the two titles.

John 1:43

43. This is evidently the first bestowal of the new name on Simon: and it is done from our Lord’s prophetic knowledge of his future character: see note on Matthew 16:18.

Κηφᾶς = כֵּיפָא Aramaic, כֵּף Hebrew, a stone. The Greek name Peter became the prevalent one in the apostolic Church very soon: Paul uses both names indiscriminately.

I own I cannot but think with Bengel, Paulus, and Strauss, that the knowledge of Simon shewn by the Lord is intended to be miraculous. So also Stier, i. 31 f. edn. 2, “I know who and what thou art from thy birth till thy present coming to me.… I name thee, I give thee a new name, I know what I will make of thee in thy following of Me and for my Kingdom.” The emphatic use of ἐμβλέψας here (it is not so emphatic in John 1:36, but still even there may imply fixed contemplation, in the power of the Spirit, who suggested the testimony) is hardly accountable except on this explanation of supernatural knowledge. Similarly Abram, Sara, Jacob, received new names in reference to the covenant and promises of God to them.

John 1:44

44. τῇἐπαύρ.] Apparently, the day after the naming of Peter; and if so, the next but one after the visit of Andrew and the other disciple, and the fourth day after John 1:19.

Our Lord is on the point of setting out from the valley of the Jordan to Galilee, and finds Philip, with whom there is every reason to believe He was previously acquainted (see John 1:45). Here we find Jesus himself calling a disciple, for the first time. But ἀκολούθει does not here bear its strict apostolic sense; the εὑρήκαμεν afterwards, and the going to search for others to be disciples, unites Philip to the company of those who have been before mentioned, who we know were not immediately or inseparably attached as followers to Jesus.

John 1:45

45. On the futility of Mr. Greswell’s distinction between ἀπό as signifying mere habitation, and ἐκ, nativity, see reff. and note on ch. John 11:1. This is Bethsaida on the Western bank of the lake of Gennesareth; another Bethsaida (Julias) lay at the top of the lake, on the Jordan. See note on Luke 9:10.

John 1:46

46. It does not appear where Nathanael was found: but he is described, ch. John 21:2, as ὁἀπὸΚανᾶτῆςΓαλιλαίας: and as we find Jesus there, ch. John 2:1, it is probable the call may have taken place in its neighbourhood. Nathanael (“נְהַנְאֵל, i. q. Θεόδωρος, gift of God.” Wordsw.) is mentioned only in these two places. From them we should gather that he was an Apostle; and as his name is no where found in the catalogues of the Twelve, but Philip is associated in three of them (Matthew 10:3; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:14) with Bartholomew, it has been supposed that Nathanael and Bartholomew were the same person (see note on Matthew 10:3). This is however mere conjecture.

Μωυσῆςἐντ. ν., probably in Deuteronomy 18:15; but also in the promises to Abraham, Genesis 17:7 alli[36].: and in the prophecy of Jacob, Genesis 49:10, and the Prophets, passim: see the reff. in E. V.

[36] alli = some cursive mss.

τὸνυἱὸντοῦἸωσ. τ. ἀπὸ [37].] This expression seems to shew previous acquaintance on the part of Philip with Jesus. No stress can be laid, as has been most unfairly done by Lücke, De Wette, and others, on Jesus being called by Philip, the son of Joseph, as indicating that the history of His birth and childhood, as related by Matt. and Luke, was unknown to John. Philip expresses what was the prevailing belief, in the ordinary words, as Olshausen remarks. In an admirable note, Leben Jesu, p. 23 ff., Neander remarks, that by combining the two declarations of John, that in Jesus the Eternal Word of God became flesh (John 1:14), and that ‘that which is born of the flesh is flesh’ (ch. John 3:6), we cannot escape the inference, that a supernatural working of God in the conception of the Man Christ Jesus is implied.

[37] CODEX . “These fragments (of the sixth century) are found in three places: four leaves are in the British Museum (Cotton. C. xv.), denoted J or I by Wetstein and others; two are at Vienna (Imperial Library, Cod. Theol. Gr. Numbers 2 Lambec.), to which the notation N was formerly restricted; and six in the Vatican (No. 3785), called by Scholz Γ. Edited by Tischendorf in his Monumenta Sacra, 1846.” (Tregelles.) To these must now be added some further fragments collated by Tischendorf for his eighth edition.

John 1:47

47. As Lücke observes, the meaning of this question is simpler than at first sight appears. It is impossible that Nathanael, himself a Galilæan, could speak from any feeling of contempt for Galilee generally: and we have no evidence that Nazareth was held in contempt among the Galilæans. He alluded therefore to the smallness and insignificance of the town in proportion to the great things which were now predicated of it. Nazareth is never named in the O.T. nor in Josephus.

John 1:48

48. The Evangelist certainly intends a supernatural insight by the Lord into Nathanael’s character to be here understood; and there is probably no reference at all to the question which Nathanael had just asked. To suppose that Jesus overheard that question, is just one of those perfectly gratuitous assumptions which the very Commentators who here make this supposition are usually the first to blame. Compare ch. John 2:25.

ἀληθ. Ἰσρ.] ‘An Israelite who truly answers to the inner and honourable meaning of the name.’ When we reflect what was contained in that name, and Who it is that speaks, we can hardly agree with De Wette that the words are spoken merely in the spirit in which every nation attaches some peculiar virtue, and especially those of openness and straightforwardness, to itself, as deutsch heraussagen, deutsche Treue, or Cicero’s “Romano more loqui.”

John 1:49

49. The remark was overheard by Nathanael, and recognized as indicating perfect knowledge of his character. The question πόθ. μεγιν. is one of astonishment, but not perhaps yet of suspicion of any thing supernatural. Our Lord’s answer first opens this to him.

πρὸτοῦκ.τ.λ.] It would be doubtful whether ὄνταὑπὸτ. συκ. belong to φωνῆσαι or to εἶδόνσε, did not John 1:51 decide for the latter construction.

The whole form of our Lord’s answer seems to indicate that the place where Philip called Nathanael was not now in sight, nor had been. The declaration that Jesus had seen him there, at once brings the conviction which he expresses in the next verse. This would not have been the case, unless the sight had been evidently and unquestionably supernatural: and unless the words ὄνταὑπὸτὴνσυκῆν involved this. Had Jesus merely seen Nathanael without being seen by him, (De Wette,) or had εἶδόνσε only expressed ‘I knew thy character,’ at first sight, ‘although at a distance’ (Lücke), no such immediate conviction would have followed.

ὄνταὑπὸτὴνσυκῆν, says Wordsw., “is something more than ὑπὸτῇσυκῇ—the accusative indicates retirement thither as well as concealment there,—perhaps for purposes of prayer and meditation.” In fact it contains in it, ‘when thou wentest under the fig-tree, and while thou wert there.’

John 1:50 = ‘Thou art the Messiah:’ see Psalms 2:7. ch. John 11:27: Matthew 16:16; Luke 22:70. Olshausen (ii. 77 ff.) maintains that ὁυἱ. τ. θ. was not a Jewish appellation for the Messiah,—on account of the Jews taking up stones to cast at Jesus when He so called Himself, ch. John 10:33. But as Lücke observes (i. 456, note), it was not for the mere use of this Name,—but for using it in a close and literal sense which was unintelligible and appeared blasphemous to them, ἐγὼκ. ὁπατὴρἕνἐσμεν,—that they wished to stone Him: see note on ch. John 10:36. It was certainly not so common a name as ‘the Son of David,’ for the Messiah.

Nathanael can hardly have meant the name in other than its popular meaning; and the synonymous and better known appellation which he adds, confirms this.

John 1:51

51. Our Lord says this not in blame, rather in praise of the simple and honest expression of Nathanael’s conviction; but principally to shew him, that if he believed by reason of this comparatively small proof of His divine power, his faith would increase from strength to strength at the greater proofs which should from that time forward be given.

It is perhaps best to set a question at πιστεύεις; but see notes on the similar sentences, ch. John 16:31, and John 20:29.

John 1:52.

52. ἀμὴνἀμήν is peculiar to John. The other Evangelists use ἀμήν once only in such asseverations. The LXX do not use it in this sense. Stier remarks (i. 36, edn. 2), that the Verily, verily, I say unto you of the Lord, is spoken in His coequality with the Father: not as the ‘Thus saith the Lord’ of the Prophets.

ὑμῖν] The words following are then spoken to all the disciples present, not only to Nathanael.

With or without ἀπʼ ἄρτι, the meaning will be much the same. The glories of a period beginning from the opening of the Lord’s public ministry, and at this day not yet completed, are described. For it is not the outward visible opening of the material heavens, nor ascent and descent of angels in the sight of men, which our Lord here announces; but the series of glories which was about to be unfolded in His Person and Work from that time forward. Lüther, cited by Lücke, i. 458, beautifully says: “When Christ became man and had entered on His ministerial office and begun to preach, then was the heaven opened, and remains open; and has from that time, since the baptism of Christ in the Jordan, never been shut, and never will be shut, although we do not see it with our bodily eyes … Christ says this: ‘Ye are now heavenly citizens, and have your citizenship above in the heavenly Jerusalem, and are in communion with the holy angels, who shall without intermission ascend and descend about you.’ ”

The opening of heaven is a symbolical expression, signifying the imparting of divine grace, help, and revelation. See Genesis 28:10-17; Ezekiel 1:1; Isaiah 6:1; Malachi 3:10; Isaiah 64:1; also Deuteronomy 11:17; 1 Kings 8:35.

The words have a plain reference to the ladder of Jacob, and imply that what he then saw was now to receive its fulfilment: that He, the Son of Man, was the dwelling of God and the gate of Heaven, and that through Him, and on Him in the first place, was to descend all communication of help and grace from above.

That no allusion is meant to the Transfiguration, or the Agony, is plain; for all those here addressed did not witness these appearances, but Peter and John only; nor to the Ascension, for they did not see heaven opened, nor did angels ascend nor descend.

The above has (remarks Olsh. ii. 79) been the interpretation of all Commentators of any depth in all times: Origen as well as Augustine, Luther as well as Calvin, Lücke as well as Tholuck: and I may add, De Wette as well as Stier.

τὸνυἱ. τ. ἀνθ.] An expression originally (as appears) derived, in its Messianic sense, from Daniel 7:13-14, and thenceforward used as one of the titles of the Messiah (see ch. John 12:34). It is never predicated of our Lord by any but Himself, except in Acts 7:56 by Stephen, in allusion apparently to Matthew 26:64, and—which is hardly an exception—in the passages of the Revelation (ch. John 1:13; John 14:14) which are almost citations from Daniel.