My Source:
COWAN CHURCH OF CHRIST MESSENGER
Volume 3, #43, November 2, 1997
Author: Alan Adams
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MATTHEW 28:19-20, DIVORCE-REMARRIAGE
AND (AAAHHH!) GRAMMAR
by Alan Adams
For some, discussion of grammar ranks right up there with ingrown toenails. I had a teacher, who once out of frustration said, "You fellows wouldn't know an adverb from an adenoid." I've tried to do better over the years. Grammar is not just a matter of piddling with idle curiosity. There's really no choice; if you're going to read and understand the Bible, you have to deal with grammar. That's just a fact of life.
MATTHEW 28:19-20 AND ITS MEANING
IN LIGHT OF ITS GRAMMAR...
Note the key verbs in this passage as they are translated in the KJV [all caps, DRL]. "GO...TEACH all nations, BAPTIZING them... and TEACHING them..." The typical explanation and application of this passage is: Jesus said we should 1) teach people, THEN 2) baptize them, and THEN 3) teach them some more. Whereas it is certainly true that we should do just that, it is NOT true that this is the meaning of Matthew 28:19-20.
For one thing the first "TEACH" and the second "TEACHING" are not the same words. The first one is a form of the Greek verb matheiteuo and the second one is a form of the Greek verb didasko. Just looking at them, it is clear that they are not the same. MATHEITEUO is the verb form of the noun MATHEITEIS, which means "disciple." Jesus said, "Go disciple all nations," or as the ASV says, "Go make disciples of all the nations." It would be the same as saying, "Go make christians of all nations."
The logical question here would be, HOW does one make christians out of people in all the nations? Jesus says, by "baptizing [and] teaching." Paying attention to grammar, one will look at the ending of the words baptidzONTES and didaskONTES. People who spent lifetimes in Greek determined that -ONTES signifies that the verbs with this ending are present active participles. That's why, when translating into English, they put -ING on the end of the verbs "baptizing" and "teaching."
The granddaddy of Greek grammar experts, A.T. Robertson, said, "BAPTIDZONTES and DIDASKONTES in Matthew 28:19 are modal participles" [GRAMMAR OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT, p. 1128]. "Modal" comes from "mode," which has to do with manner or method of doing something. Simply put, these modal participles, "baptizing" and "teaching," are there in order to explain the manner or means by which the apostles were to "make disciples of all the nations." It would be like saying, "Make the car look sharp: washing it, waxing it." In such a case, the meaning is not 1) make it sharp, then 2) wash it, and then 3) wax it. "Washing," "waxing," explain the mode or manner by which the car is to be made sharp. They are modal participles. Understanding this is not one whit more difficult than learning what a cam shaft is, or what valves and lifters are supposed to do. It's all a matter of desire and effort.
UNDERSTANDING AND APPLYING WHAT IS
TAUGHT BY THE WORDS AND GRAMMAR
OF MATTHEW 28:19-20 HAS GREAT
PRACTICAL BENEFIT...
First, it knocks in the head the all-too-common practice of teaching people who know zip about the Bible, that there was a man named Jesus, and then in the next breath, telling them they must be immersed in water. Jesus said, "make disciples," by not only "baptizing" them, but also by "teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you." Brother Thomas Warren has said,
Obviously, this does not mean that the one
who is teaching the prospective candidate for
baptism [must teach the candidate--AA] the
specific details of every individual or particular
instruction in the gospel ... but it does mean
that Christ expects those who preach the gospel
to the lost so to teach that, when the lost confess
their faith in Christ (just prior to being baptized,
Acts 8:26-40; Romans 10:9-10), they are to
have been taught that they are, in that confession,
publicly committing themselves to being faithful
to Christ--i.e., to all of the law (gospel) of Christ
for the rest of their lives [KEEPING THE LOCK
IN WEDLOCK, p. 125].
We simply do wrong when, in our exuberance to get people into the water, we fail to impress upon them that they are committing themselves to a lifetime effort of "observing all things whatsoever [Christ] commanded [the apostles]." The unspoken, yet practiced, doctrine of Baptize [shoot] first, then ask questions later, is false.
UNDERSTANDING AND APPLYING WHAT
IS TAUGHT BY THE WORDS AND GRAMMAR
OF MATTHEW 28:19-20 KNOCKS IN THE
HEAD A FALSE DOCTRINE RELATIVE TO
CHRIST'S TEACHING ON DIVORCE AND
REMARRIAGE...
Readers of the Bible are aware that Jesus said that SOMEBODY ["whosoever"] who divorces his spouse for any reason other than fornication, and then marries another person, commits adultery. With divorce now as common as drinking water, the teaching of Jesus has come to be seen as quite an "hard saying" with many, even preachers.
Does Jesus mean to say that 1) anybody, christian or non-christian, living this side of the First Century, who 2) divorces his spouse, 3) let's say, because they fought all the time, and then 4) marries another person, whom he loves and with whom he is happy, is 5) a person who commits adultery as long as he lives with his second spouse? The short answer is, Yes.
Some brethren do not agree with this apparent teaching of Jesus based on Matthew 19:9. The disagreement has taken many forms and comes from many different angles. Here, I am only concerned with one as it relates to the correct exegesis of Matthew 28:19-20.
THE NOTION THAT WHEN JESUS SAID
"WHOSOEVER"
THAT HE REALLY MEANT
"WHOSOEVER"
IS A CHRISTIAN MARRIED TO ANOTHER
CHRISTIAN
The late brother James Bales was a, if not THE, champion of this view. He believed, taught, and promoted the notion that a comparison between Paul's teaching in 1 Corinthians 7, and that of Jesus in Matthew 19, warrants the conclusion that Jesus, in Matthew 19:9 was speaking ONLY of a marriage between two believers.
First, the notion that there is a CHRISTIAN "adultery" and an NON-CHRISTIAN "adultery" is morally repugnant. Those who accept Bales' teaching here should answer the question. Does "adultery" have any meaning for non-christians? Is there a CHRISTIAN "fornication" and a NON-CHRISTIAN "fornication"? "Effeminancy"? "Lasciviousness"? On the surface, this doctrine (that of Bales) is false.
Second, since we are to "make disciples of all the nations": and since, a part of making a disciple involves teaching that prospective convert that he is "to observe all things whatsoever [Christ] commanded [the apostles]": and since, Matthew 19:9 is a part of all the things Christ commanded the apostles; it is therefore the case that the people in all the nations, though not christians, are under, subject to, amenable to, what Christ commanded in Matthew 19:9. Clearly, "whatsoever," in Matthew 19:9 means just that.
How can a non-christian be made a disciple by "teaching him to observe all" of Christ's commandments to the apostles, if he is not, to begin with, subject to those same commands? "To observe" translates the Greek TEIREIN which is a present active, infinitive verb. It comes from TEIREO which means to "follow, keep, abide by." Jesus did not say, Teach the non-christian, baptize him, and then teach him that he henceforth, and for the first time shall be morally responsibile to keep all my commandments. That non-christian was/is already subject to "all" of Christ's commandments. In order to become a disciple, to be saved, to receive the remission of sins, he must commit himself to bring his life into harmony with all that Christ has commanded--yes, even what he commanded about divorce and remarriage.
As to "all things whatsoever I have commanded you." Jesus "commanded" things about stealing, lying, extortion, fornication, etc. When going out among the "nations," and trying to turn them from their sins, I am to do so, not only by "baptizing" them, but also, and equally, by "teaching" them to "observe" all that Christ commanded. The notion that they only become amenable to these commands (including the command in Matthew 19:9), and their implications as regards how one would repent of their violation, AFTER becoming a christian, is flatly wrong. The grammar of Matthew 28:19-20 proves that. Brother Hugo McCord is reported to have once referred to the Bales' doctrine as "damnable heresy." I agree.
Alan Adams
Cowan church of Christ
104 S. Willow Street
Cowan, TN 37318
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DRL NOTE: An excellent study. If you didn't catch it all the first time, please re-read it.