The Purpose of Christ's Baptism

The Purpose of Christ's Baptism:
Here is the record in Matthew 3:13-15...

"Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered (permitted) him." Not only are we going to examine the purpose of Christ's baptism, but to what extent and in what manner it "fulfilled all righteousness." We need to remember that the purpose of baptism is identification. John's baptism of Christ was to prepare Israel for the acceptance of Christ as their Messiah. It was time for our Lord to publicly identify Himself to Israel (John 1:31).

Everything works on God's timetable—to the minute!  Notice in Matthew 3:15, when our Lord stated "Suffer it to be so NOW."  His birth, ministry, and His Crucifixion were in fulfillment of the Old Testament prophecies, and fit God's timetable to perfection!  By His baptism, He was symbolically showing what He would do on the Cross at the conclusion of His earthly ministry.  Yes, Israel knew what the prophets had said concerning their Messiah.  When He was placed under the water, this actually fulfilled a two-fold purpose. First, to remind Israel of the Old Testament Scripture prophesying of His death...

"For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet." - Psalms 22:16

Secondly, to identify Himself as the One who would fulfill this on the Cross, or, their Messiah. His baptism had publicly announced to Israel that God had given "his only begotten Son" to die on the Cross and be resurrected as the payment for the sins of the world; as John bare testimony, "...Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world." - John 1:29 The diaspora and persecution of Israel can be attributed to their rejection of Jesus Christ as their Messiah. How sad as we realize, in retrospect, that "He came unto his own (Israel) but his own received him not" (John 1:11). This was the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit, spoken of in Matthew 12:31; when He had convicted Israel that Christ was their Messiah, and they refused Him.

One may then ask, "How could Israel have accepted Christ and still crucified Him on the Cross?"  It is true that Christ would have had to go to the Cross as payment for the sins of the world, regardless of Israel's acceptance or rejection.  The Cross was inevitable; but their motive could have made the difference.  Unfortunately, their motivation was hatred and rejection as stated by Dr. Luke in Acts 2:23...

"Him (Christ), being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by WICKED HANDS have crucified and slain." On the other hand, they could have accepted Him as their Messiah; declaring their faith, as they tearfully placed Him on the Cross; proclaiming to all that they would be standing at the tomb three days later, in full anticipation of meeting their Lord in His resurrected body. Therefore, they could have lifted Him up with holy hands of FAITH; instead of wicked hands of unbelief.

Now back to our second question, How did Christ's baptism fulfill all righteousness?  Notice, the Scripture says "all righteousness," not "his righteousness."  We know our Lord was sinless and remained sinless throughout His life.

"For he hath made him (Christ) to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him." - 2 Corinthians 5:21

Since Christ was sinless, His baptism added nothing to His righteousness; for He was God manifest in human flesh.  Therefore, since God's Word is righteous and pure, the fulfillment of such would be the evidence.  Note Proverbs 30:5...

"Every word of God is PURE; he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him."

God's Word had prophesied of Christ's death (Psalms 22:16) and His Resurrection (Psalms 16:10).  Therefore, Christ's declaration of His identification by baptism proved God's Word to be righteous or pure; which had prophesied of this hundreds of years before; hence, fulfilling all righteousness, i.e., God's Word, which spoke of His death, burial and Resurrection.  His baptism, pointing to the Cross, was looked upon as though it was already accomplished.  That is why He stated "to fulfill ALL righteousness," for the fulfillment of those prophecies were as good as done.

That's the assurance we have today in the sureness, righteousness, and pureness of God's Word.  What are you trusting for your salvation, God's infallible Word or the shallowness of man's ideologies?

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life." - John 5:24