I think you misread your quote of me. I said'Do you think that just because he or she is not an adulterer, God will not judge every other sin by whether they have been washed in the blood of the Lamb, now?'I did not suggest there is licence for adultery. I suggested there is NOT licence for making an unfaithful spouse's life a misery (and other sins).
That's not what the text says at all. Jesus and the Pharisees both agree in these verses that it is the Moseic Law being discussed here. I explained in detail how these verses fit perfectly with the law. Your interpretation is contradictory to the Jewish law, and also is an obvious contradiction to similar statements made by Jesus in other Gospels, as well as several statements by Paul. You are tearing these verses out of context and contradicting much of the Bible in regard to marriage.Sealed
He divorced Israel for spiritual immorality during the betrothal, which is why He made Deut 22 & 24 to begin with. Jesus says the Law of divorce was given due to the hardness of their hearts. Since they refused to soften their hearts to God, he made a New Covenant with the Church where he regenerates our hearts so that we desire to be faithful to Him.Sealed
Fornication (porneia g4202) cannot mean illicit sexual activity only 'during Jewish betrothal" as some try to state.The word porneia (rendered 'fornication) is directed SPECIFICALLY to GENTILE converts in Acts 15 to tell them to abstain from 'fornication' (porneia G4202).==========================================================================="Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God: But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.(Act 15:19-20)fornicationG4202????????porneiapor-ni'-ahFrom G4203; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively idolatry: - fornication.======================================================Since betrothal is a Jewish custom, using this word 'porneia' to instruct the gentiles means that porneia cannot in any way specifically mean, and limited to, sexual sin during the JEWISH betrothal period.So we can know with absolute confidence that when our Lord says 'except for fornication' pertaining to divorce, that adultery is not committed upon REmarriage in such cases, that His exception applies to His followers, ALL of them, not just Jews....this is the truth that scripture as a whole provides.http://www.geocities.com/divorceandremarriage/fornicationnotonlyduringbetrothal.html
Did Jesus say ''wife'' or "espoused" wifeIn His exception clause, Jesus is clearly refering to a lawful wife. If Jesus had been only refering to the betrothal period in the exception clause, He would have used the very term used for Mary at times...."espoused wife'' or ''espoused'' (see G3423) in His exception clause.*IF* He were restricting His exception to the betrothal period, there is no reason to believe that our Lord would have been so vague about it.The fact is NOTHING presented in scripture backs this silly assertion by some who say that Jesus only meant to except the betrothed wife.This is all deceptive propaganda created to further a false doctrine... this idea does not come from Gods word.Jesus clearly used the word that means ''wife'' or woman. A mans woman was his wife. She was his lawful wife from the moment the marriage was contracted. The betrothed wife was a lawful wife.Jesus being a Jew and being God, knew this.When He said ''wife'' He was refering to whoredom of a wife, pre or post consummation.(compare Matt 19.9 and 5:32 with Luke 2:5)Conclusion:Jesus could have said "espoused' or 'betrothed' ("mne?steuo?" as is used for Mary) in His exception, yet He chose to use the normal word for a 'wife'(gune?) in Matthew 19.If Jesus WAS discerning one OVER the other, His ACTUAL words would be pertaining to the consummated wife and not the betrothed at all.But seeing that the betrothed wife was lawfully contracted in marriage, she was just as much a 'wife' for legal and religious reasons as the consummated wife.http://www.geocities.com/divorceandremarriage/13.html
Sealed wrote:He divorced Israel for spiritual immorality during the betrothal, which is why He made Deut 22 & 24 to begin with.
Jesus says the Law of divorce was given due to the hardness of their hearts. Since they refused to soften their hearts to God,
he made a New Covenant with the Church where he regenerates our hearts so that we desire to be faithful to Him.Sealed
I have edited my long post on p6, in the second half, clearly marked, not saying anything new but rewording quite a few sentences, in the hope of the content being clearer.Please let me know if this is not so. Thanks. :-}Hi Sealed, I do intend to read the rest of your post and decide whether to reply.
Hi Sealed, I do intend to read the rest of your post and decide whether to reply.
Hi FOC,If you have not read the edited part of my post on p6, please do, since you revived this thread. I've found it helpful to express some of my recently-found clarity on these matters, so I'd be interested if you have any comments.
you may or may not get any more response.
divorce and remarriage is NOT adultery, unless the divorced person - that is, not the Plaintif but the Respondent - remarries. Then both he or she and his or her spouse are committing adultery, because, the person who committed adultery first, when they were still married to their first spouse, is the person who should remain unmarried as a punishment for their sin
ONLY if there is GENUINE repentance and a change of course by the one who broke the marriage covenant, is there the slightest glimmer of hope for a meaningful reconciliation, but, even that cannot be at the beck and call of others. Broken hearts take time to mend.
_________________Cindy
lastblast:(Rom. 7:2-3, I Cor. 7:39)
Exactly, yet what you would say is OK with the Lord(remarrying another while one has a living spouse) flies in the face of what you just spoke above. To remarry says that I WILL NOT allow healing to occur with the possibility of RECONCILIATION with the one God joined me to----the offense is just too great and I am not willing to wait until they come to full repentance. I would ask this: is THIS the mind/heart of Jesus Christ toward the sinner? Does He wash His hands of us BEFORE the day of judgment?
