An exercise

5.5. An exercise
According to the KJV John said the following in 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 1:7:
Jesus G2424 Christ G5547 is come G2064 in G1722 the flesh (1 John 4:2).
Jesus G2424 Christ G5547 is come G2064 in G1722 the flesh G4561 (2 John 1:2).
The verbal forms in these two verses are translated in the same way. The NET translates them differently.
Jesus as the Christ who has come in the flesh
(1 John 4:2)
Jesus as Christ coming in the flesh (2 John 1:7)
Can you explain the reason why the NET did that? What is the difference in meaning between the two verses? Your first step would be to parse the verb. What does RMAC say about these verbs? The next step would be to establish if the same verbal form was used in both passages. If not, what is the difference? Consult Robertson and Vincent. If you have access to other commentaries based on the Greek text, you may want to consult them as well.