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Discussion Forum : Scriptures and Doctrine : Acts 2:24

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Nasher
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Joined: 2003/7/28
Posts: 404
Watford, UK

 Acts 2:24

Acts 2:24
24 whom God raised up, having loosed the pains of death, because it was not possible that He should be held by it.

Why, when Jesus had bore the worlds sins in His own body, could death not hold Him?


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Mark Nash

 2003/9/30 5:26Profile
InTheLight
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Joined: 2003/7/31
Posts: 2779
Phoenix, Arizona USA

 Re: Acts 2:24

Albert Barnes seems to sum it up very well:

"This does not refer to any natural impossibility, or to any inherent efficacy or power in the body of Jesus itself, but simply means that "in the circumstances of the case such an event could not be." Why it could not be he proceeds at once to show. It could not be consistently with the promises of the Scriptures. Jesus was the "Prince of life" Acts 3:15; he had life in himself John 1:4; John 5:26; he had power to lay down his life and to take it again John 10:18; and it was indispensable that he should rise. He came, also, that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death that is, the devil Heb 2:14; and as it was his purpose to gain this victory, he could not be defeated in it by being confined to the grave."


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Ron Halverson

 2003/9/30 12:19Profile
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"Pilgrim and Sojourner." - 1 Peter 2:11

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 Re:

Quote:
As David foretold, Christ did not only rise again, but also was void of all decay in the grave.
[i]Geneva Bible Translation Notes[/i]


Even the symptoms of death did not appear on the saviour's body, he was kep from all decay.


Quote:
Having loosed the pains of death - The word properly means, the pains of a woman in travail. As it was not possible that he should be held under it - Because the Scripture must needs be fulfilled.
[i]John Wesley's Explanitory Notes[/i]


Isn't it awesome that Jesus by dying and rising again has made it possible for use to be born again through what he accomplished on the cross. We are idenified with Him in his 'travail' to be born anew unto God.

Quote:
[b]was not possible he should be holden of it[/b]--Glorious saying! It was indeed impossible that "the Living One" should remain "among the dead" (Luk_24:5); but here, the impossibility seems to refer to the prophetic assurance that He should not see corruption.
-[i]JFB[/i]


How could death hold the author of Life and Death. Our God is a living God who is eternal even though stepping into our time, He still is the Alpha and Omega, the one who was, who is, and who is to come.


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SI Moderator - Greg Gordon

 2003/9/30 13:11Profile
Jason
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Joined: 2003/3/15
Posts: 138


 Re: Acts 2:24

It was impossible because the Law says:

Leviticus 18:5 So you shall keep My statutes and My judgments, by which a man will live if he does them; I am the LORD.

Ezekiel 20:11 And I gave them My statutes and informed them of My ordinances, by which, if a man observes them, he will live.

There was one man (notice it's singular in the verses) who fulfilled the Law; according to the Law, this man will live. Death cannot hold this man -- the very Law that decrees death for the lawbreaker is a guarantee of life for the Lawful One.

 2003/9/30 15:16Profile
Chosen7Stone
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Joined: 2003/7/21
Posts: 268
FL, USA

 Re: Acts 2:24

Excerpt from John Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible:
having loosed the pains of death; this may be understood either of what Christ had done for his people by dying for them; he had abolished death; he had took away its sting, and delivered them from the curse of it, having fulfilled the law, satisfied justice, and made full atonement for their sin; so that though they die, death is not a penal evil to them, nor shall they always continue under the power of it: or of what God did in raising Christ from the dead; he delivered him from the power of death, by which he was held in the grave, and which is expressed by a word which signifies pains and sorrows, even those of a woman in travail; which though he felt not now, he had gone through them; his low state in the grave was the effect of them; and these are said to be loosed when he was raised up, he being so entirely delivered from them, as that they should never come upon him more: and it is to be observed, that the same word in the Hebrew language, and so in the Chaldee and Syriac, in which Peter might speak, signifies both cords and sorrows; and we often read in Talmudic and Rabbinic (w) writings, of חבלו של משיח, "the sorrows", or "pains" of the Messiah.
Because it was not possible he should be holden of it: of death, and under the power of it; partly, because of the power and dignity of his person, as the Son of God, he being still the Prince of life, and who by dying abolished death, and him that had the power of it; and partly, because as the surety of his people, he had made full satisfaction for sin, and had brought in an everlasting righteousness, and therefore ought in justice to be discharged, and detained a prisoner no longer; as also because of the prophecies of the Old Testament concerning his resurrection, which must be fulfilled.


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Mary M.

 2003/9/30 17:20Profile
dpike777
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Joined: 2003/9/7
Posts: 17


 Re: Acts 2:24

Death could not hold Him because He (HImself) was not guilty of any sin. God would have been unjust to let Jesus stay in Hell, He was innocent. So God attributed His death to our account (we owed God a debt of death because of our sins), declared us not guilty, and raised Jesus from the dead. So now God has Jesus and us too. He won on all fronts! Glory!!

 2003/9/30 17:49Profile
Jason
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Joined: 2003/3/15
Posts: 138


 Re:

dpike777,

You said, "God would have been unjust to let Jesus stay in Hell."

I think it necessary to point out that Jesus never went to hell in the first place -- this doctrine is not found in the Scriptures. It has become a popular teaching due to Word-faith teachers like Kenneth Copeland and Hagin teaching the error that Jesus suffered in hell for 3 days. Just thought I'd clarify.

 2003/9/30 20:29Profile
dpike777
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Joined: 2003/9/7
Posts: 17


 Re: Jesus and Hell

Explain Acts 2:27-31. Act 2:27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
Act 2:28 Thou hast made known to me the ways of life; thou shalt make me full of joy with thy countenance.
Act 2:29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day.
Act 2:30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;
Act 2:31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption.
Verse 31 right there, says His (Jesus) soul was in Hell.


1Pe 3:19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison. What was the prison he preached in?

Rev 1:15 And his feet like unto fine brass, as if they burned in a furnace; and his voice as the sound of many waters. Brass speaks of judgement, Jesus feet were "like fine brass, as if they burned in a furnace" His feet burned in the furnace of hell!

Rev 1:18 I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.

How did Jesus get the keys of hell and death if He did not go there? Jesus did not need those keys for Himself, He is the creator and can command those locks to open. He had to get them from the one who did need them: The devil.

Jesus took every punishment that we deserved, including Hell.

Just so you know it, I do not listen too or pay any attention to the Word faith teachers. Copeland, Hagin, Roberts, Duplantis, Sevell, Dollar, Hickey, Meyer, Jakes, etc...

dpike777

 2003/10/1 19:32Profile
Jason
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Joined: 2003/3/15
Posts: 138


 Re:

Excellent: here goes ...

First of all, Acts 2:27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

This is not an accurate rendering of the verse; the Greek word is "Hades," which is a translation of the Hebrew word "Sheol" in Psalm 16:10. Sheol was not "hell" in our sense of the word, but should be understood as "the place of shades" or (as often translated) "the grave."

Hades in Greek mythology was precisely the same thing. Hades carried no necessary implication of punishment or judgment -- only the place of a departed spirit. This is why this is the Greek word used to translate the Hebrew "Sheol" in both the LXX and the NT. This makes further sense when Peter quotes this verse to explain why Jesus did not remain in the grave (i.e. Sheol).

The same is true for Acts 2:31. Unfortunately, our modern understanding of hell is a place of punishment and burning. We've gotten our terms mixed up. Scripture actually uses a more specific word for this place -- Gehenna.

This Greek word used specifically for the place of fiery punishment in the New Testament (unfortunately often translated into English so it is indistinguishable from "hades") is derived from the Hebrew "Ge Hinnom." This phrase means "valley of lamentation" and speaks specifically of a valley outside Jerusalem that was notorious for its being used for child sacrifice by idolaters in the Old Testament period (hence the association with fire). It had become something of a garbage dump by the time of Jesus. This word "Gehenna" was used to describe the horrible place of torment for sinners -- Jesus is never said to have gone there. (In fact, Hades is thrown into "the lake of fire," which is answerable to Gehenna, in Revelation 20).

Thirdly, Scripture also speaks of a place called "Tartarus," which in Greek mythology was the prison of the Titans (those spirits who had fought against the Gods, been cast down, and bound with chains in this "Tartarus"). It is used in 2 Peter 2:4 as the prison of the "angels who sinned." This is also answerable to the "bottomless pit" found in Revelation (although the term is not used).

When 1 Peter 3:19 talks about Jesus preaching "to the spirits in prison," it is clearly (esp. after a close reading of 2 Peter 2) referring to those angels who had fallen in the days of Noah. I should also add that it says "he preached" -- that is, he was declaring victory and not suffering.

You ask how Jesus received the keys to hades and death (Thanatos) without going to hell (saying he had to take them from the devil). You answer your own question in saying that he is the creator -- those keys are his by right. He did not (nor would he) have to go to hell in order to get these keys (it doesn't stand to reason that those keys would be in hell in the first place). He defeated Satan once and for all at the cross, not in hell. (I should also add that "keys" in the first place are simply indicative of power over these things -- they are not literal keys but, exactly as you said above, they show that Jesus has power over these things.)

As for Revelation 1:15, I don't think this stands on solid exegetical grounds; the man Daniel saw also had "feet as in a fire." Plus, Jesus' feet do not remain in hell, do they?

Jesus' life and death were sufficient to pay for our sin. He did not have to suffer hell in any way, nor did he according to the Scriptures.

I hope that helps. If anything is unclear, just let me know. God bless!

 2003/10/1 22:02Profile
jeremyhulsey
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Joined: 2003/4/18
Posts: 777


 Re:

Jason wrote: "You ask how Jesus received the keys to hades and death (Thanatos) without going to hell (saying he had to take them from the devil). You answer your own question in saying that he is the creator -- those keys are his by right. He did not (nor would he) have to go to hell in order to get these keys (it doesn't stand to reason that those keys would be in hell in the first place). He defeated Satan once and for all at the cross, not in hell. (I should also add that "keys" in the first place are simply indicative of power over these things -- they are not literal keys but, exactly as you said above, they show that Jesus has power over these things.)"

Reply: Amen. Jesus had the keys from eternity, or in essence, the power over life and death. The verse in Revelation does not imply that he had won them, but had always possessed them.

Jason wrote: "As for Revelation 1:15, I don't think this stands on solid exegetical grounds; the man Daniel saw also had "feet as in a fire." Plus, Jesus' feet do not remain in hell, do they?"

Reply: Brass may symbolize judgement, but Jesus' feet being brass doesn't mean that he was judged, rather, he is the judge. This vision of Christ is not the result of being in hell for 3 days or else he would have looked like that after the resurection. This vision is one of the glorified Christ.

Jason wrote: "Jesus' life and death were sufficient to pay for our sin. He did not have to suffer hell in any way, nor did he according to the Scriptures."

Reply: Amen. "[H]aving wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross. Having disarmed principalities and powers, He made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them in it." (2Colossians 2:14,15)

"Triumphing over them in it" in verse 15 is referring to the cross. When a leader conquered a city or a nation, he disarmed and bound the leaders and led them in a parade down the streets to publicly humiliate them and to show his victory over them. A "public spectacle" is made of them. That is what Jesus is said to have done, not in hell, but on the cross.

I hope I have added a little to what Jason has already said.

In Christ,
Jeremy Hulsey





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Jeremy Hulsey

 2003/10/2 0:01Profile





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