When I read the following two portions of scripture, I feel them to mean that Jesus Christ [u]is[/u] revealed in the believer, and this will be seen by others [i]now[/i], rather than that Jesus Christ will be seen by others [i]only[/i] when He returns, (of which John says we will find ourselves to be like Him, 1 John 3:2).Is the immediacy of this interpretation justified by the Greek, or is the alternative ambiguity of (various) translations justified?1 Peter 1 NKJV13 Therefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and rest [i]your[/i] hope fully upon the grace that [u]is to be brought to you [b]at[/b] the revelation of Jesus Christ[/u];14 as obedient children, not conforming yourselves to the former lusts, [i]as[/i] in your ignorance; Young13 Wherefore having girded up the loins of your mind, being sober, hope perfectly upon the grace that [u]is being brought to you [b]in[/b] the revelation of Jesus Christ[/u],14 as obedient children, not fashioning yourselves to the former desires in your ignorance,2 Thessalonians 1 NKJV10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day. Young10 when He may come to be glorified in his saints, and to be wondered at in all those believing--because our testimony was believed among you--in that day;
The Young's translation is good on 1Pet 1:13.Happening presently, hopefully, and continuing on through our walk on earth ...From Robertson's:That is to be brought (tēn pheromenēn). Present passive articular participle of pherō, picturing the process, that is being brought. For revelation (apokalupsei) see end of 1Pe_1:7.2Thess1:10 in context, is talking about His Coming.
I believe 1 Peter 1:13 is speaking of the future revelation of Jesus Christ, even in Young's translation. The context of the verse is speaking of Christ's coming.See verses 3-9, which all are speaking of the final coming. The grace of God has appeared to all men, but we also patiently await the fulfillment of that grace to be revealed at the revelation of Jesus Christ.Just some thoughts. Bless you Linn,-Eli
Hi Eli, not arguing here, but I'd like to think 'all' things point to His Coming and the fulfilling of all things and that most scholars see this as a both/and type verse, for which I'd like to agree, and the grammar is as I posted from Robertson's. The grammar must be looked at in every verse, not just how we read it or how it's translated by any man into a Bible version.The beauty of it is what I hesitate to rob from people, is that now we are to and can and should have a divine revelation of Christ in our Spirits, without which, we know not Whom we serve. And that if one seeks the revelation of Christ now ... they will be part of those who enjoy His Revealing when He comes.I don't believe we can have one without the other.Unless Christ is seen through divine revelation now, one will not partake on the Plus side of His Return, as those verses Linn gave in 2Thess1:7-12.It's an open invitation for us to go Deeper into Christ - that we might Know Him - and I wouldn't want to rob anyone of seeing that. Edit: changed "but" to "and".Not disagreeing, in the Context of that Chapter pointing to His Revealing/Coming, just not wanting to rob from the other scholars who see the both/and of this verse, so as not to take from that truth of present revelation. As Robertson points out "the process of" also.Thanks.