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Discussion Forum : Scriptures and Doctrine : What constitutes a Biblical marriage?

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philologos
Member



Joined: 2003/7/18
Posts: 6566
Reading, UK

 Re:

Quote:
And Isaac brought her into his mother Sarah's tent, and took Rebekah, and she became his wife; and he loved her: and Isaac was comforted after his mother's death.


I had never noticed that the 'love' followed the 'marriage' in this reference. I think it is significant. As I have often commented, the Hebrew and Greek way of saying 'husband/wife' is really just to say 'her man' or 'his woman'. This gives a very interesting sequence..

1. he took her
2. she became 'his woman'
3. he loved her.

I know we may be uncomfortable with this in our current age but there is definitely a sense of a man 'owning his wife' throughout the scripture. It is seen in the instructions for a woman's vows in particular.

We sometimes say that 'marriage' is God's idea but that demands this definition of 'marriage' which I personally find so difficult, biblically. If we look at the general statement of [color=0000FF]Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. (Genesis 2:24 KJVS)[/color] we can plainly see the 'leaving and cleaving' and I think that has to be a part of 'marriage'; this is a new 'entity' which has replaced the old 'entity' of the original family. I think that these steps are integral to any definition of God's plan for the union of a man and a woman.

Our Lord attributed these words to God...
[color=0000FF]And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. (Matthew 19:4-6 KJVS)[/color].. it is the creator who said these words. The separation from the old and the adhering to the new is foundational but I still struggle to know the point at which it could be said that 'God has [u]joined them[/u] together'.


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Ron Bailey

 2007/6/7 11:01Profile
RobertW
Member



Joined: 2004/2/12
Posts: 4636
St. Joseph, Missouri

 Re:

Quote:
The separation from the old and the adhering to the new is foundational but I still struggle to know the point at which it could be said that 'God has joined them together'.



Would the 'joining' be the same as the joining of a covenant? It seems that God's original design was a blood covenent?

saying, 'This is the blood of the covenant that God enjoined unto you,' (Heb. 9:10)

This is why I think the tokens of the covenant were so vital for the parents. It was proof that the deal had been 'sealed'. Just as circumcision was a 'token' of the covenant, etc. I know the implications of this are horrendous and even challenging to consider, I am really just trying to understand what God's perfect will was. We know His permissive will has made allowances for things. I suspect my question would be to wonder how that played out.

Any thoughts?


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Robert Wurtz II

 2007/6/7 11:26Profile
philologos
Member



Joined: 2003/7/18
Posts: 6566
Reading, UK

 Re:

[color=0000FF]Saying, This is the blood of the testament which God hath enjoined unto you. (Hebrews 9:20 KJVS)[/color]

The word translated 'enjoined' here is really 'commanded', [url=http://cf.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1781&Version=kjv]entellO[/url] so the image is a little different. The word translated 'cleave' in Gen 2 is to 'glue' things together...[url=http://cf.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H01692&Version=kjv]dabaq[/url]


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Ron Bailey

 2007/6/7 14:55Profile





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