Poster | Thread | philologos Member
Joined: 2003/7/18 Posts: 6566 Reading, UK
| Re: | | Quote:
I therefore believe in the Virgin Birth of Christ because His supernatural Blood necessitates His supernatural birth.
Stever is this your statement or James Orr's. _________________ Ron Bailey
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| 2006/7/3 14:44 | Profile |
| Re: Pleading the blood? | | Hi Stever,
I do [u]know[/u] that the Bible usually refers to 'seed' in connection with men. And, I do [u]know[/u] that the reference in Gensis 3:15, so early in scripture, establishes as FACT that [u]women do have 'seed'[/u], and, that this is the [i]only[/i] [u]mention[/u] of women's seed, in scripture. I also accept this was a reference [i]specifically[/i] to Christ
. That is, that the Child whom Mary bore, was the Seed whom God had promised would bruise the serpents head. Im sure you know there were other promised seeds, who fulfilled other roles.
Up till now you have stated categorically that WOMEN DO NOT HAVE SEED! - while at the same time trying to establish the importance of retaining the more faithful translation 'Seed' (of the woman - Eve) for Gen 3:15. So far, it has sounded as if you are contradicting yourself - or that you don't read your own posts. :-o While you are holding out for an acknowledgement from me, that seed is usually called in connection with men, I would also like you to concede that there is a sense in which it is the offspring (singular) who is the seed, in a separate use of the same word. In this respect, Eves seed (Seed) becomes Christ, although we know she did not bear Him. This is what I mean here:
You said:
Quote:
Your statement above is confusing. You say:
"From my reading of scripture, the word 'seed' refers to both reproductive cells (sperm and ova), [b]and to desendants of the people in question[/b], in a general way. In this sense, women do have 'seed' whether you call them that, or ova (Latin), or eggs (English). " xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
What exact "Scripture" are you referring to in your study? Please proof text by Scriptural reference what exact "Scripture" you are referring to.
I think I've covered this in my reply, by acknowledging the woman's seed is only mentioned once specifically, and then by implication when Mary bears Jesus.
Do you want me to do a Bible study on mothers, to prove they are accommodated as 'seed' bearers, of import to God? For instance, off the top of my head, there are an interesting two in the geneology of Christ Himself, .... Ruth, the Moabitess, and Rahab the harlot. Please let me know, or take a look for yourself.
(The Seed which Christ [i]became[/i] is a whole nuther Bible study...)
Quote:
This subject has been an issue ever since Westcott and Hort used the works of Origen, rather than the received text, and created the problem.
Stever, seriously, I am not disagreeing with scripture. I agree with your point about the meaning of Gen 3:15. My pointing out that all women have seed, is no more revolutionary than your pointing out that [u]the Bible[/u] only mentions them specifically, once.
Have you ever done a word search on 'offspring', and noticed that it appears elsewhere in scripture, even in Young's Literal Translation? This might be a reason some translators favour the word. As Ive indicated already, offspring could be singular or plural, and I dont know which it is, in Genesis. Do you?
Moving on, then, my fuller reply in my previous three posts is a [i]serious attempt[/i] to dislodge your seeming conviction that Christ's blood was derived only from His Father, and that His mother contributed no part to it, as this is, frankly, [i]impossible[/i].
The author you quote is theorising, based on erroneous thinking - whether on erroneous information or simply speculation - after learning that a baby's blood never passes through its mother's blood vessels. While this comes as a surprise when one first learns of it, it is not unique to humans, so common is the principle in nature. |
| 2006/7/3 14:55 | | philologos Member
Joined: 2003/7/18 Posts: 6566 Reading, UK
| Re: | | Quote:
The word 'seed' which is used in the Bible, probably has a history which philologos could expound fully - a task I'm not going to attempt.??From my reading of scripture, the word 'seed' refers to both reproductive cells (sperm and ova), and to desendants of the people in question, in a general way. In this sense, women do have 'seed' whether you call them that, or ova (Latin), or eggs (English).
The problem we are having here is that different languages have different idioms. God has clearly used the idioms of Hebrew in promises which were quite deliberately ambiguous. The Hebrew word 'zera' is first used in Quote:
Gen. 1:11 (KJVS) And God said, Let the earth bring forth grass, the herb yielding seed, and the fruit tree yielding fruit after his kind, whose seed is in itself, upon the earth: and it was so.
That is its most natural use but it is also used of 'offspring' and when this is so it is not dealing in biological intricacies of 'egg' and 'seed' but simply indicating posterity.
The threat issued to Satan in Gen 3:15 Quote:
Gen. 3:15 (KJVS) And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
is at this earliest stage a simple statement about the woman's posterity. In the strictest sense Eve's seed was Cain, Abel, Seth and others. Christ was 'Mary's seed'
To illustrate that we are not talking about biological niceties we only have to look at Matthew's genealogy in chapter 1. The repeated word 'begot' is the Greek word 'gennaO' and 'beget' is its most natural translation. However in Quote:
Matt. 1:16 (KJVS) And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ. Matt. 1:20 (KJVS) But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. )
the same word has been translated 'born' and 'conceived'. If you would like to examine more verses where 'gennaO' is used you will find that it is being used as 'beget, conceive, born' in fact, almost any aspect of conception and birth is accommodated by this word. The more specific word for 'conceive' is found in Quote:
Luke 1:31 (KJVS) And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
and is a word which means to 'catch' or 'take hold' of something. This is our sense of 'conceive' in the reproductive process.
As regards 'seed' it used of the progeny of either man or woman, and of the man's sperm, and of plant seed. If you try to pin down a word with several meanings into just one meaning we end up in distorting the scripture rather than supporting it. If you want to look up all OT references to 'zera' 'seed'...Gen 1:11-12,29; 3:15; 4:25; 7:3; 9:9; 12:7; 13:15-16; 15:3,5,13,18; 16:10; 17:7-10,12,19; 19:32,34; 21:12-13; 22:17-18; 24:7,60; 26:3-4,24; 28:4,13-14; 32:12; 35:12; 38:8-9; 46:6-7; 47:19,23-24; 48:4,11,19; Ex 16:31; 28:43; 30:21; 32:13; 33:1; Lev 11:37-38; 15:16-18,32; 18:21; 20:2-4; 21:15,17,21; 22:3-4; 26:16; 27:16,30; Num 5:28; 11:7; 14:24; 16:40; 18:19; 20:5; 24:7; 25:13; Deut 1:8; 4:37; 10:15; 11:9-10; 14:22; 22:9; 28:38,46,59; 30:6,19; 31:21; 34:4; Josh 24:3; Ruth 4:12; 1Sam 2:20; 8:15; 20:42; 24:21; 2Sam 4:8; 7:12; 22:51; 1Kings 2:33; 11:14,39; 18:32; 2Kings 5:27; 11:1; 17:20; 25:25; 1Chr 16:13; 17:11; 2Chr 20:7; 22:10; Ezra 2:59; 9:2; Neh 7:61; 9:2,8; Esth 6:13; 9:27-28,31; 10:3; Job 5:25; 21:8; 39:12; Psa 18:50; 21:10; 22:23,30; 25:13; 37:25-26,28; 69:36; 89:4,29,36; 102:28; 105:6; 106:27; 112:2; 126:6; Prov 11:21; Eccl 11:6; Is 1:4; 5:10; 6:13; 14:20; 17:11; 23:3; 30:23; 41:8; 43:5; 44:3; 45:19,25; 48:19; 53:10; 54:3; 55:10; 57:3-4; 59:21; 61:9; 65:9,23; 66:22; Jer 2:21; 7:15; 22:28,30; 23:8; 29:32; 30:10; 31:27,36-37; 33:22,26; 35:7,9; 36:31; 41:1; 46:27; 49:10; Ezek 17:5,13; 20:5; 43:19; 44:22; Dan 1:3; 9:1; Amos 9:13; Hag 2:19; Zech 8:12; Mal 2:3,15 _________________ Ron Bailey
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| 2006/7/3 15:14 | Profile |
| Re: Pleading the blood? | | philologos,
Thank you for hearing my request for an exposition on 'seed'. :-)
Stever,
There was something I meant to say, which picks up on points from two of my earlier posts.
I said:
Quote:
Let me state clearly, I believe in the Virgin Birth. It poses me no crisis of faith whatsoever...
then we are all supernatural, because we are all descended from Adam, and look how he began.
What I mean is... that if God could create the dust from which He formed Adam, then breathe into him to create a living soul, then put him in such a deep sleep that he was unaware of losing the rib for Eve to be formed...... it did not require extra-special power on God's part to create a single human reproductive cell to join with Mary's, that enabled her to bear Jesus, and it doesn't require extra-special faith for me to believe that He could do that, or that He did do that.
In Adam, was the potential to generate hundreds of thousands of reproductive cells, each of which was capable of joining with a reproductive cell from Eve (who also would have had thousands). Only one of each is required to join together. That God created a specific cell for a specific purpose is awesome...., but surely well within His creative power.
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| 2006/7/3 16:32 | | Christinyou Member
Joined: 2005/11/2 Posts: 3710 Ca.
| Re: | | There is spiritual seed and there is physical seed. God can manipulate the seed any way He wants. The seed if oak tree, the seed of Mary being Christ. Both Spirit and Physical are in God, Proof being creation of Adam and out of Adam, Eve. Adam had seed to plant just like Eve had seed to receive from the planter. When seed conceives from the planter and the receiver, seed is born of a woman a living thing, if you will a reproduction of the planter and receiver.
Mary the receiver and God being the planter by the Holy Spirit, from this conception Christ was born a reproduction of Man from Mary and All God from the Father. Thus Jesus Christ all man and all God. The only difference in this Man was no seed of Adam. Thus back to the seed of Mary being able to reproduce perfect seeds that have no sin, or else the man part of Jesus Chris would carry the fallen seed of man, which Jesus was not. Thus the statement sin was passed to all man by Adam is correct. 1 Corinthians 15:47-49 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven. As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.
Thus the Seed of Mary or the Seed of a woman is Incorruptable seed or the Incorruptable seed of the Father could not produced the image of the heavenly. This does not make woman heavenly, for she still dies out of or in Christ. But Her seed is Incorruptable, it is the seed of Adam that carries the poison of sin and death of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. "He Ate", and physically and spiritually Adam took on physical and spiritual corruption. 1 Corinthians 15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.
After "he ate", Adam's seed was corrupted, Eves was not, or Christ could not have been perfect man and Perfect God at the same time born of a woman.
"yet her desire will be for her husband"
In Christ: Phillip _________________ Phillip
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| 2006/7/3 22:19 | Profile |
| Re: | | Stever responds to Philologos:
I posted this once before, in regards to the specific reference of the "seed of the woman in Genesis 3:15:
Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her Seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise His heel."
In regards to Genesis 3:15 above we find: - This was the curse upon the serpent. - This was the first clear prophecy of a coming redeemer. - The use of "He" reveals that only one person is meant. - The word "seed" speaks of offspring or descendant. - ONLY ONE DESCENDANT OF EVE WAS BORN OF A WOMAN AND NOT A MAN. - The word "enmity" speaks of warfare. - Satans seed is fallen man. - Bruising the head speaks of crushing ones authority. - Christs heal was bruised when He was crucified. - Satans head was crushed when Jesus was crucified.
The New Testament clarifies this further:
Gal 4:4 But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law,
Rom 16:19-20 And the God of peace will crush Satan under your feet shortly.
Some Notes (from above, plus one more): 1- This was the curse upon the serpent. 2- This was the first clear prophecy of a coming redeemer. 3- The use of "He" reveals that one person is meant. 4- The word "seed" speaks of offspring or descendant. 5- Only one descendant of Eve was born of a woman and not a man. 6- The word "enmity" speaks of warfare. 7- Satans seed is fallen man. 8- Bruising the head speaks of crushing ones authority. 9- Christs heal was bruised when He was crucified. 10- Satans head was crushed when Jesus was crucified. 11- Ancient Rabbinic Judaism regarded this passage as Messianic (Targum Pseudo-Jonathan and the so-called Jerusalem Targum.
And also the following: 12- Targum Pseudo-Jonathan: "And it shall be that when the sons of the woman study the Torah diligently and obey its injunctions, they will direct themselves to smite you on the head and slay you; but when the sons of the woman forsake the commandments of the Torah and do not obey its injunctions, you will direct yourself to bite them on the heel and afflict them. However, there will be a remedy for the sons of the woman, but for you, serpent, there will be no remedy. They shall make peace with one another in the end, in the very end of days, in the days of the King Messiah."
[b][color=9900FF]My point on this issue of the seed of the woman is that this is a specific prohpecy of the Messiah to Come, Jesus Christ, who would undo what Adam had done.[/color][/b]
[b][color=0000FF]It is my personal understanding that Adam was God's regent on this earth. When Adam sinned, all of mankind was judged a sinner as well, at that very moment --all present & future generations of man.[/color][/b]
[b][color=CC0000]When we read in Hebrews that Christ is the 2nd Adam, then everything makes sense
The first Adam sinned, and brought the entire human race into sin (including Eve, as well as us in the future). When Christ came to this earth, as the "seed of the woman", the "Messiah" and when He paid the price for Adam's sin, that is now "our" sin, we all became saved at that very moment- all of mankind back to Adam and forward to the end of time--for all of those before the Cross, that believed in the Seed of the Woman and the Messiah to come, and for all of us after the Cross, that believe in Jesus Christ, the Messiah, the Seed of the woman. Now all of us who believe in Jesus Christ are saved and will receive eternal life. And we are/were all saved at the very moment that Christ paid the price on the Cross, and shouted "it is finished"--Tetelestai !.[/color][/b]
The Greek word tetelestai has the following meaning:
Literally translated the word tetelestai means, It is finished. The word occurs in John 19:28 and 19:30 and these are the only two places in the New Testament where it occurs. In 19:28 it is translated, After this, when Jesus knew that all things were now completed, in order that the scripture might be fulfilled, he said, I thirst. Two verses later, he utters the word himself: Then when he received the sour wine Jesus said, It is finished, and he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.
The word tetelestai was also written on business documents or receipts in New Testament times to show indicating that a bill had been paid in full. The Greek-English lexicon by Moulton and Milligan says this:
Receipts are often introduced by the phrase [sic] tetelestai, usually written in an abbreviated manner... (p. 630). The connection between receipts and what Christ accomplished would have been quite clear to Johns Greek-speaking readership; it would be unmistakable that Jesus Christ had died to pay for their sins. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
[b][color=CC3300]However, we (saved Christians) still have the sin nature that we have inherited from Adam. However, we (saved Christians) still have the sin nature that we have inherited from Adam. That is evident when we sin by thought or deed. When we look at another woman in lust, when we get angry with our brother, etc. etc. etc. we have committed SIN. Any man who says that he never sins, by thought or deed, after being saved is a liar, and the truth is not in him. We will not be perfect, like Christ, until the rapture. Now, today, eventhough we are saved, we still see through the glass darkly, but when we see him face to face at the rapture we will be like him!
How do we know that? The Bible tells us that "flesh and blood cannot inherit eternal life" [1 Cor 5:50] " Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.".[/color][/b]
[b][color=0000FF]The teaching about Jesus Christ being the 2nd Adam is found in Romans:[/color][/b]
{Romans 5:12-21-the 2nd Adam, who is Jesus Christ!] 12. Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: 13. (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. 15. But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. 16. And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. 17. For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.) 18. Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. 19. For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. 20. Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound: 21. That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Col 2:13-15 states that Christ is now in control, and has blotted out our sin and has broken Satans power over man by paying the price for sin:
"13. And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; 14. Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; 15. And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it."
In conclusion, Genesis 3:15 is a prophecy of the Messiah, and is specific to Jesus Christ. This first prophecy in the bible can be found in the King James Bible. It cannot be found in the NIV and other newer versions.
God bless,
Stever :-D
Quote:
philologos wrote:
Quote:
The word 'seed' which is used in the Bible, probably has a history which philologos could expound fully - a task I'm not going to attempt.??From my reading of scripture, the word 'seed' refers to both reproductive cells (sperm and ova), and to desendants of the people in question, in a general way. In this sense, women do have 'seed' whether you call them that, or ova (Latin), or eggs (English).
The problem we are having here is that different languages have different idioms. God has clearly used the idioms of Hebrew in promises which were quite deliberately ambiguous. The Hebrew word 'zera' is first used in Quote:
Gen. 1:11 (KJVS) And God said, Let the earth bring forth grass, the herb yielding seed, and the fruit tree yielding fruit after his kind, whose seed is in itself, upon the earth: and it was so.
That is its most natural use but it is also used of 'offspring' and when this is so it is not dealing in biological intricacies of 'egg' and 'seed' but simply indicating posterity.
The threat issued to Satan in Gen 3:15 Quote:
Gen. 3:15 (KJVS) And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
is at this earliest stage a simple statement about the woman's posterity. In the strictest sense Eve's seed was Cain, Abel, Seth and others. Christ was 'Mary's seed'
To illustrate that we are not talking about biological niceties we only have to look at Matthew's genealogy in chapter 1. The repeated word 'begot' is the Greek word 'gennaO' and 'beget' is its most natural translation. However in Quote:
Matt. 1:16 (KJVS) And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ. Matt. 1:20 (KJVS) But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. )
the same word has been translated 'born' and 'conceived'. If you would like to examine more verses where 'gennaO' is used you will find that it is being used as 'beget, conceive, born' in fact, almost any aspect of conception and birth is accommodated by this word. The more specific word for 'conceive' is found in Quote:
Luke 1:31 (KJVS) And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
and is a word which means to 'catch' or 'take hold' of something. This is our sense of 'conceive' in the reproductive process.
As regards 'seed' it used of the progeny of either man or woman, and of the man's sperm, and of plant seed. If you try to pin down a word with several meanings into just one meaning we end up in distorting the scripture rather than supporting it. If you want to look up all OT references to 'zera' 'seed'...Gen 1:11-12,29; 3:15; 4:25; 7:3; 9:9; 12:7; 13:15-16; 15:3,5,13,18; 16:10; 17:7-10,12,19; 19:32,34; 21:12-13; 22:17-18; 24:7,60; 26:3-4,24; 28:4,13-14; 32:12; 35:12; 38:8-9; 46:6-7; 47:19,23-24; 48:4,11,19; Ex 16:31; 28:43; 30:21; 32:13; 33:1; Lev 11:37-38; 15:16-18,32; 18:21; 20:2-4; 21:15,17,21; 22:3-4; 26:16; 27:16,30; Num 5:28; 11:7; 14:24; 16:40; 18:19; 20:5; 24:7; 25:13; Deut 1:8; 4:37; 10:15; 11:9-10; 14:22; 22:9; 28:38,46,59; 30:6,19; 31:21; 34:4; Josh 24:3; Ruth 4:12; 1Sam 2:20; 8:15; 20:42; 24:21; 2Sam 4:8; 7:12; 22:51; 1Kings 2:33; 11:14,39; 18:32; 2Kings 5:27; 11:1; 17:20; 25:25; 1Chr 16:13; 17:11; 2Chr 20:7; 22:10; Ezra 2:59; 9:2; Neh 7:61; 9:2,8; Esth 6:13; 9:27-28,31; 10:3; Job 5:25; 21:8; 39:12; Psa 18:50; 21:10; 22:23,30; 25:13; 37:25-26,28; 69:36; 89:4,29,36; 102:28; 105:6; 106:27; 112:2; 126:6; Prov 11:21; Eccl 11:6; Is 1:4; 5:10; 6:13; 14:20; 17:11; 23:3; 30:23; 41:8; 43:5; 44:3; 45:19,25; 48:19; 53:10; 54:3; 55:10; 57:3-4; 59:21; 61:9; 65:9,23; 66:22; Jer 2:21; 7:15; 22:28,30; 23:8; 29:32; 30:10; 31:27,36-37; 33:22,26; 35:7,9; 36:31; 41:1; 46:27; 49:10; Ezek 17:5,13; 20:5; 43:19; 44:22; Dan 1:3; 9:1; Amos 9:13; Hag 2:19; Zech 8:12; Mal 2:3,15
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| 2006/7/3 22:39 | | Christinyou Member
Joined: 2005/11/2 Posts: 3710 Ca.
| Re: | | """ ONLY ONE DESCENDANT OF EVE WAS BORN OF A WOMAN AND NOT A MAN. """
Either God changed the seed of Mary to be the pre-sin seed of Eve, or the seed of Woman, God from the beginning knowing that Christ must come from a woman and her seed must be Incorruptable. For all corruption comes through Adams seed, the first Adam, 1 Corinthians 15:21-22 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. "for since by man" in Hebrew does not include woman.
In Christ: Phillip _________________ Phillip
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| 2006/7/3 23:07 | Profile | philologos Member
Joined: 2003/7/18 Posts: 6566 Reading, UK
| Re: | | Christinyou's Quote:
Thus the statement sin was passed to all man by Adam is correct.
I am not unhappy with this statement as it stands although I would prefer 'passed to all men IN Adam'. However, we are back to the issue of 'transmission' and I see no biblical warrant for the statement that Sin is in the male sperm.
1Tim 2:14 shows that there was a difference in Adam's transgression and Eve's. But Adam as the head and source of our race affects all of his progeny, even Eve although her transgression was earlier than his.
The tenses used in Rom 5:12 are Aorist which is best translated perhaps as a simple past tense but must be distinguished from the Perfect and Imperfect tenses.
eg. A process is better suited to the Imperfect tense as in Quote:
for before the coming of certain from James, with the nations he was eating, and when they came, he was withdrawing and separating himself, fearing those of the circumcision, (Gal 2:12 YNG)
Here Young's Literal has captured the 'process'.
The Aorist tense would not be used for a process but for a completed event and Quote:
because of this, even as through one man the sin did enter into the world, and through the sin the death; and thus to all men the death did pass through, for that all did sin; (Rom 5:12 YNG)
Again Youngs has captured the nuance of the Aorist tense. There was one 'entrance of sin into the world' and one transmission of 'death' which passed through to all men. As in Adam all die. I died in Adam. So in Christ shall all be made alive. In taking me out of Adam and putting me into Christ God regenerated me and gave me a new heredity.(1Cor 15:22) _________________ Ron Bailey
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| 2006/7/4 4:18 | Profile | philologos Member
Joined: 2003/7/18 Posts: 6566 Reading, UK
| Re: | | Stever's Quote:
7- Satans seed is fallen man.
but not woman?
Quote:
My point on this issue of the seed of the woman is that this is a specific prohpecy of the Messiah to Come, Jesus Christ, who would undo what Adam had done.
no problems with this
Quote:
It is my personal understanding that Adam was God's regent on this earth. When Adam sinned, all of mankind was judged a sinner as well, at that very moment --all present & future generations of man.
This is the forensic aspect of what took place. Man, however, was not only judged a sinner but became one. Rom 5:12 is not referring to the forensic guilt of the race but to a dynamic change which spread instantly through the whole race.
Quote:
The first Adam sinned, and brought the entire human race into sin (including Eve, as well as us in the future).
This is the point which I am still challenging. You say that sin has passed to all men through man's seed but Eve was already a separate entity at the time of Adam's sin. How did Adam's condition transmit to Eve. It could not have been hereditary in the sense of passing through generations.
Quote:
However, we (saved Christians) still have the sin nature that we have inherited from Adam. However, we (saved Christians) still have the sin nature that we have inherited from Adam.
This is a matter which we have discussed at length in other topics. I do not believe that we can be in Adam AND in Christ at the same time. It is either/or. _________________ Ron Bailey
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| 2006/7/4 6:13 | Profile |
| Re: | | Stever responds to Philologos:
The understanding of this concept has to do with the fact that Adam was Gods representative on the earth. Once Adam sinned, then all of mankind sinned.
Once Christ came and overcame sin--He is now Gods representative for all of mankind. Christ has taken care of the sin problem for ALL MEN/WOMEN. The only difference here, is that it is only applied (salvation) for those that believe in HIM. Salvation is available for all, because the debt has been paid. Salvation can only be applied by those that believe in Christ, the Seed of the Woman, The Messiah.
Romans Chapter 5 reveals this mystery:
Romans5: 14. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who (Adam) is the figure of him that was to come. 15. But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. 16. And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. 17. [b][color=990000]FOR IF BY ONES OFFENCE DEATH REIGNED BY ONE; MUCH MORE THEY WHICH RECEIVE ABUNDANCE OF GRACE AND OF THE GIFT OF RIGHTEOUSNESS SHALL REIGN IN LIFE BY ONE, JESUS CHRIST.) 18. THEREFORE AS BY THE OFFENCE OF ONE JUDGMENT CAME UPON ALL MEN TO CONDEMNATION; EVEN SO BY THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF ONE THE FREE GIFT CAME UPON ALL MEN UNTO JUSTIFICATION OF LIFE.[/color][/b] 19. For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. 20. Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound: 21. That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
Also, of note, 1 Corinthians tells us that Eve was made for Adam, and Adam was not made for Eve:
8. For the man is not of the woman; but the woman of the man. 9. Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man.
The Living Bible has this to say: 8. The first man didn't come from woman, but the first woman came out of man. 9. And Adam, the first man, was not made for Eve's benefit, but Eve was made for Adam.
In conclusion, from what I understand of this matter, Adam was Gods representative on the earth. When he sinned, all were in sin. Gods answer to this problem was to send His Son down to this earth, to pay the debt for all of mankind. He did this by living a sinless life, and dying on the cross for the sins of mankind, not just his own sin, because He had no sin. He was our once and for all sinless substitute.
God bless,
Stever :-D
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Quote:
philologos wrote:
Quote: ---------------------------------- ---------------------------------- It is my personal understanding that Adam was God's regent on this earth. When Adam sinned, all of mankind was judged a sinner as well, at that very moment --all present & future generations of man. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- This is the forensic aspect of what took place. Man, however, was not only judged a sinner but became one. Rom 5:12 is not referring to the forensic guilt of the race but to a dynamic change which spread instantly through the whole race.
Quote: --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The first Adam sinned, and brought the entire human race into sin (including Eve, as well as us in the future). -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- This is the point which I am still challenging. You say that sin has passed to all men through man's seed but Eve was already a separate entity at the time of Adam's sin. How did Adam's condition transmit to Eve. It could not have been hereditary in the sense of passing through generations.
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