I once heard of a doctrinal idea called "Double Predestination" that took predestination a step further to say that "the person who ends up in heaven would really be happier there, the person in hell happier there. If a person meant for Hell went to heaven, they would feel out of place, and likewise vice versa".Now, this whole thing as I understand it, if I understand it correctly, seems to make absolutely no sense biblically, or even logically otherwise. Anybody else ever heard of this? Am I just way off, or are some theologians buying into this stuff?Grace and Peace...
First off, the idea that anyone would be 'happy' in hell, strikes me as the ultimate misreading of scripture.
I once heard of a doctrinal idea called "Double Predestination" that took predestination a step further to say that "the person who ends up in heaven would really be happier there, the person in hell happier there. If a person meant for Hell went to heaven, they would feel out of place, and likewise vice versa".
I know that this entire idea is just so obserd. And I think that's what perks my curiosity- could such a belief really exist? How can a so-called "biblical doctrine" survive when rejected in almost every point by the Bible itself? I just don't know...Grace and Peace...
I don't believe an unsaved person would be happy either way because the flesh is never satisfied. They most definately would not be happy in hell. In the physical sense they would not be happy in heaven because no man can see God and live. Spiritually speaking they would not be happy in heaven because of overwhelming conviction. They would see the depth of their depravity and even though they would be in heaven they would not be able to become saved because even though heaven seems like a wonderful place their soul still craves for the world. Its like trying to put a wild animal in a cage, its against nature.Their would be an awful lot of squirming around in heaven to say the least,very uncomfortable.Interesting subject.
Now, this whole thing as I understand it, if I understand it correctly, seems to make absolutely no sense biblically, or even logically otherwise. Anybody else ever heard of this? Am I just way off, or are some theologians buying into this stuff?
_________________Ron Bailey
Well, for once I can say that I'm glad to know that I'm "way off". [edit: in my understanding of this topic]Grace and Peace...