I have an honest question/observation about these two verses. I am decidedly not starting an argument and to prove it I will not respond after this post. I am truly trying to understand how these two verses work together. Here are the verses:Romans 10:1 "Brethren, my heart’s desire and prayer to God for Israel is that they may be saved."Romans 11:26 "And so all Israel shall be saved..."Query: Why is Paul hoping and praying in Rom 10:1 that Israel "may be saved," when he affirmatively and confidently states Israel "shall be saved" in Rom 11:26?I see a few possibilities- there may be others:1) Paul did not know what to believe2) Paul received new revelation between writing Rom 10 and Rom 113) There is a different meaning for the term "Israel" in these two verses4) There is a translation error in one of the verses. 5) Paul had a "slip of the pen" in one of the two verses. 6) Paul is expressing "wishful thinking" in Rom 11:26 and is not making a conclusive statement. I appreciate your responses. ***Respectfully, I ask just those who believe Rom 11:26 applies to all national/racial Israel respond, or those who don't really know what they believe.*** Like I said, I will not respond further unless someone asks a specific question of me- but I would prefer not to respond.
Edited for additions at the end...It is my belief (from the context & other passages of scriptures) that in Romans 10 Paul was speaking of among his fellow Isreal countrymen in his time & that Romans 11:26 is speaking specifically to the EndTimes Eschatological prophetic sovereign in-gathering of Israel before (or "at" depending on how you interpret/see it?) the Lord returns.And it is my desire (and the evangelistic heart of God) that all would be saved, & in God's sovereignty all that will be saved will be. What I mean is that my desire to see people saved is God-birthed & His saving is sovereign & will happen. So the two are not opposed to one another, but work in concert in the wisdom & sovereignty (& timing) of God.
I think context is key here. Paul begins with his heart's cry for his brethren after the flesh. He desires that salvation come to Israel just as it has to the Gentiles. But for the most part Israel has rejected the grace of God and have gone about trying to establish their own righteousness (10:2-18). It was not like Israel was not told. In fact, all of the law and prophets pointed to Christ, but they would not see it. (10:19-21) Does their rejection of their Messiah mean that they have been cast away by God? The answer is absolutely not. There are, after all, a small group of them who have accepted Christ. (11:1-7) But the rest are blinded by God. (11:8-11) But this blindness is not permanent, and is not intended that they all fall. They were blinded for the sake of the Gentiles, but the Gentiles will provoke them to jealousy and they will return. (11:12-25) And so we come to the conclusion stated in verse 26. Not only will a small remnant be saved, but the blinded will see, and salvation will come to all of Israel, not just to the remnant. I don't believe this is speaking of any kind of an eschatalogical, national salvation, but rather speaking of the fact that not only will a small remnant receive Christ as Messiah, but the time is coming when the people as a whole will have their eyes opened to the Messiah and will turn to him. (This does not mean every individual, just as saying that America is a Christian nation means that every person is saved. )
Yeah, amen.And I specifically used the word eschatology & not apocalyptic because I just meant by the pure definition of "eschatos", as in "at the end" or "last things", as in I (personally) believe this happens around the time of the Lord's return. But that's my view anyways. Just for clarity. 😊