SermonIndex Audio Sermons
Image Map
Discussion Forum : Scriptures and Doctrine : Divorce and Remarriage

Print Thread (PDF)

Goto page ( Previous Page 1 | 2 | 3 )
PosterThread
Sree
Member



Joined: 2011/8/20
Posts: 1715


 Re:

Quote:

Not sure how you can say that when Jesus himself permitted divorce in the case of marital unfaithfulness.




Jesus never permitted divorce. In Matthew 19 Jesus clearly answers that divorce is not God's purpose. But when the Jews asked him, why mosses then permitted divorce, he answered them saying because of hardness of heart. But even with hard heart Moses permitted divorce only in case of adultery. So Jesus here was answering why Moses permitted divorce and under what condition it was permitted by Moses. The Jews understood what Jesus meant clearly and that is why they asked Jesus why Moses permitted divorce while you do not. It is sad that even so called born again Christians cannot understand what Jesus meant in Matthew 19 as those unconveted Jews. That is why even today some Christians say that Jesus permitted divorce. It is a shame.


_________________
Sreeram

 2015/10/30 23:57Profile
proudpapa
Member



Joined: 2012/5/13
Posts: 2936


 Re: Sree

RE: ///Jesus never permitted divorce. In Matthew 19 Jesus clearly answers that divorce is not God's purpose. But when the Jews asked him, why mosses then permitted divorce, he answered them saying because of hardness of heart. But even with hard heart Moses permitted divorce only in case of adultery.///

I do not think that a Bill of divorce was needed in the case of adultery in the day of Moses

'And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.'

The Jews in Matthew 19 was reffering to Duet 24 :

1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.

2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.

3 And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;

4 Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.

add: The reason : The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
Was because of what Jesus had previously said back in Matthew 5:31 and 32, It seemed to them to contridict Duet 24.

They did the same thing as we do to day they justified themselves and condemned others with the Law.
So Jesus expounded the Law to them.






 2015/10/31 0:58Profile
dohzman
Member



Joined: 2004/10/13
Posts: 2132


 Re:

Many Christians know far more about high standards than about nurturing spiritual/emotional/mental growth and healing in relationships.

That is so true, Husbands Love you wife as Christ loved the church and gave Himself for it......


I knew this would be a Pandora s box but I believe that when we get to Heaven we will be surprised by who we see is there and who is not there. The thing is most of these arguments only happen in the good Ole' USA or places where there is a relative degree of peace, that is about to change in this Country for the Christian Church.


_________________
D.Miller

 2015/10/31 13:07Profile
narrowpath
Member



Joined: 2005/1/9
Posts: 1067
Germany NRW

 Re:

[It is sad that even so called born again Christians cannot understand what Jesus meant in Matthew 19 as those unconveted Jews.]

Sree, You can say you do not agree with someone over an issue, but why would you go so far as to doubt their conversion over such an issue?

Today we had breakfast with a group of 6 men and 1 of them was divorced the other remarried. Both regretted their divorce and wished I could have worked out.

Though I hold the conservative view that remarriage is nowhere found in the bible, I do accept the brothers and encouraged them to live their life as it is. I did not tell the re-married brother that he should divorce his second wife and I will not do it in future. I would probably not attend a remarriage wedding. If anyone asks me, as the sister yesterday if remarriage is legitimate, I will tell them that I do not find it in the bible. If they go ahead and do it regardless, I would accept them - in most cases. If they were formerly married as Christians and rejected reconciliation or got divorced and remarried out of an adulterous relationship that would be quite another story, but each case is different.

Therefore I would advise a couple to avoid divorce at all cost, unless the unbelieving spouse wants to depart or when adultery is involved. Even then, I do believe it is better for the believing spouse to remain unmarried or get reconciled.


1 Corinthians 7:11 But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.

When husband and wife are both believers I believe Jesus can heal every single marriage if both are only willing to engage in the process of reconciliation.


In everything speak the truth in love but do not compromise one for the other.

 2015/10/31 14:06Profile
Sree
Member



Joined: 2011/8/20
Posts: 1715


 Re:

Quote:

Was because of what Jesus had previously said back in Matthew 5:31 and 32, It seemed to them to contridict Duet 24.



Deuteronomy 24 is the only place where Divorce laws are very clear and a bill of divorce is needed. So the Jews obviously referred to Deuteronomy 24. Matthew 5:31 and 32 has nothing contradicting to Deuteronomy 24. Here Jesus only said the vice-versa statement of Deut 24, which is a man divorcing a women without any case of adultery. So I don't know how the Jews found them contradicting.

Irrespective of what the Jews asked, the answer given by Jesus is very clear in Matthew 19, he clearly did not permit divorce. That is why they asked him second time, then why did Moses permit. Which Jesus replied promptly as due to hardness of heart.

Quote:

They did the same thing as we do to day they justified themselves and condemned others with the Law.
So Jesus expounded the Law to them.



There are two things, one is holding the Law as it is, 2nd is condemning others. I never condemned anyone, I never asked anyone to give up their second marriage. In fact I said it is better for someone to remarry than to burn in lust.

Now in the pursuit of showing mercy we many times lower the standard of law. This is wrong. What the scripture says is correct and should not be twisted for the sake of showing mercy or personal gain.
If you take John 8, Jesus showed mercy to the women caught in adultery, but he also upheld the law and asked the man without sin to throw the first stone. He never said let us twist the law.


_________________
Sreeram

 2015/11/2 4:28Profile
Sree
Member



Joined: 2011/8/20
Posts: 1715


 Re:

Quote:

Sree, You can say you do not agree with someone over an issue, but why would you go so far as to doubt their conversion over such an issue?



I never doubt anyone's conversion nor do I believe everyone who considers himself born again are truly born again. It surprises me how the Jews understood the words of Jesus better than those who claim to be born of the Spirit, because the main function of Spirit is to explain the teachings of Jesus to us.


_________________
Sreeram

 2015/11/2 4:33Profile
TMK
Member



Joined: 2012/2/8
Posts: 5389
NC, USA

 Re:

Sree-

Jesus is making an affirmative statement in Mt. 19:8. There is separation in thought between v 8 and vs 9.

In vs 8 he explains why Moses did what he did. In v 9 Jesus plainly says that marital infidelity makes divorce permissible.


_________________
Todd

 2015/11/2 9:44Profile
proudpapa
Member



Joined: 2012/5/13
Posts: 2936


 Re:

RE:///Deuteronomy 24 is the only place where Divorce laws are very clear and a bill of divorce is needed. So the Jews obviously referred to Deuteronomy 24.///

agree

RE: /// Matthew 5:31 and 32 has nothing contradicting to Deuteronomy 24. Here Jesus only said the vice-versa statement of Deut 24, which is a man divorcing a women without any case of adultery. So I don't know how the Jews found them contradicting.///

I disagree

as I said a bill of divorce was not needed under moses for
adultery : it was a death sentance.

Duet 24. is not talking about adultery.

Wesley's Notes for Deuteronomy 24:1

24:1 Some uncleanness - Some hateful thing, some distemper of body or quality of mind not observed before marriage: or some light carriage, as this phrase commonly signifies, but not amounting to adultery. Let him write - This is not a command as some of the Jews understood it, nor an allowance and approbation, but merely a permission of that practice for prevention of greater mischiefs, and this only until the time of reformation, till the coming of the Messiah when things were to return to their first institution and purest condition.


RE: ///Irrespective of what the Jews asked, the answer given by Jesus is very clear in Matthew 19, he clearly did not permit divorce. That is why they asked him second time, then why did Moses permit. Which Jesus replied promptly as due to hardness of heart.///


To divorce a spouse whom has committed adultery is not an act of a hard heart. Read duet 24 a little closer.









 2015/11/2 10:31Profile





©2002-2020 SermonIndex.net
Promoting Genuine Biblical Revival.
Privacy Policy