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Discussion Forum : Scriptures and Doctrine : 1 Peter 3:19

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Joined: 2005/2/13
Posts: 20

 1 Peter 3:19

I was just curious to what people's doctrinal viewpoints were on the meaning of 1 Peter 3:19?? I have been trying to see if Spurgeon wrote anything on it but I have had no luck.

God Bless. Mr Nath.

 2005/3/1 2:24Profile

Joined: 2005/2/24
Posts: 3283

 Re: 1 Peter 3:19

but I have had no luck.

Luck, what is that?
I will try and help here I feel "In My Opinion" Christ's "preaching" to the spirits did not take place between His death and resurrection, but after His resurrection, evidently as a part of his ascension.The idea that salvation is being offered in the spirit world is out of sync with the development of the argument in 1 Peter 3:17-22. The purpose of this passage is to encourage suffering Christians with the example of Christ' vindication, He was put to death in flesh but was raised up to life and victory, a victory whose extent included the realm of fallen angels (verse 22 says that Christ is "gone into heaven" and is on the right hand of God, angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him. To say that verse 19 is describing the offer of the gospel to deceased humans implies that Peter veered off into an unrelated topic that does not serve this purpose (and is nowhere else mentioned in the Bible). How would it encourage suffering Christians to know that God will give unbelievers (including their persecutors) an opportunity to repent in the spirit world? In that case, why suffer in the flesh?


 2005/3/1 9:41Profile

Joined: 2003/7/18
Posts: 6566
Reading, UK


Mr Nath
please double click here to read some of our ramblings on the topic.

1 Peter 3:19

Ron Bailey

 2005/3/1 9:54Profile

Joined: 2005/2/16
Posts: 239
Winnipeg, Manitoba Canada

 Re: 1 Peter 3:19

Grudem (systematic theology) makes a good case against the idea that Christ went to preach in hell. He does so by way of tracing the history of the Apostles creed - showing that Rufinus added the 'descended into the grave' clause in 490 A.D. This clause was found in one version put out by Rufinus, but it wasn't the one that became prevalent. In 690 A.D it came back ninto the creed, but here it was taken to men descending into 'hell' as opposed to the grave.

Grudem demonstrates that scripture doesn't teach a descent into hell - and walks through all the verses that suggest He did. 1 Peter 3:19 being one of them - Like Wesley, he felt explains this verse as referring to the Spirit of Christ which preached righteousness through Noah to those antidiluvian's who are now in hell.

Seemed reasonable to me.

Daniel van de Laar

 2005/3/1 17:21Profile

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