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Discussion Forum : Scriptures and Doctrine : legalism? can someone please define..?

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KingJimmy
Member



Joined: 2003/5/8
Posts: 4419
Charlotte, NC

 Re:

Jesus spoke of the "weightier matters of the law" which were mercy, justice, and faithfulness. These were to be set as the foundation to approaching God's commandments and interpreting them. Often those who are consumed with how long a woman's dress must be, or how long their hair must be, or how short a man's hair must be have often forgotten the principle of mercy. Thus, they come up with bizzarre means of interpreting what is acceptable and what is not.


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Jimmy H

 2005/2/28 21:39Profile
Gideons
Member



Joined: 2003/9/16
Posts: 474
Virginia

 Re:

Legalism can also be where we take what God has told us and then assume that it applies to everyone else.

For example, God told me to stop drinking a specific type of caffeinated soft drink. If I take what God has directed to do and then say it's for the entire body of Christ, I've turned it into legalism.

God is doing this because He's reaching to take out something in my heart.

On the other hand, if something is clearly sin, then it's not legalism to say to stop sinning.

There's a clear distinction between the two things.


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Ed Pugh

 2005/3/1 14:20Profile
philologos
Member



Joined: 2003/7/18
Posts: 6566
Reading, UK

 Re:

Quote:
I never will be able to wrap my mind around the mechanics of how our infinately powerful God resided in a human form. Its not that I don't believe it, I just don't understand it. Like trying to conceptualize infinity all at once. It is beyond the human minds ability for comprehension.


He did not reside in human form, He became human.


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Ron Bailey

 2005/3/1 14:26Profile
dann
Member



Joined: 2005/2/16
Posts: 239
Winnipeg, Manitoba Canada

 Re:

Quote:

philologos wrote:He did not reside in human form, He became human.



I am glad I read your post before I posted ;-), as I was about to say the same thing.

Dan


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Daniel van de Laar

 2005/3/1 15:02Profile









 Re:


"He did not reside in human form, He became human."

I don't see any distinction. And this also illustrates a form of legalism.

A Rhetorical Question: Ron, during the time Jesus was on earth (God became fully human, as you say.) who was Jesus communicating with when He prayed?

 2005/3/1 15:45









 Re:

Living holy could be legalism, depending on the motive.

If someone lives holy to [b]please[/b] God, it would be legalism because nothing can please our Holy God except for the cross of Jesus Christ.

However if someone lives holy to [b]praise[/b] God, I would say that is the normal Christian life, far from being legalism

 2005/3/1 15:56
Gideons
Member



Joined: 2003/9/16
Posts: 474
Virginia

 Re:

I'm listening to a great sermon (as I type) on this topic by Zac Poonen entitled "The Call of God - The Call to Holiness." Here is a link: https://www.sermonindex.net/modules/mydownloads/visit.php?lid=4317.

One of my prayers these days is that the Lord will give me an increased fear of him and that I will quickly obey Him.

I'm still thinking about what you said here Jesse. Our motives are so important and as we draw nearer to Jesus, He will expose those motives for what they really are. When we really want to be someone, that's when we must be very careful.

I simply want to walk in holiness because if I fail to do it, then God's presence is gone from my life and I can't live without the presence of the Holy Spirit in my prayer closet and through out the day. That's not to say that I haven't sinned since this discovery, but it leads me away from sin.

There's a great book on Rhees Howell by Norman Grubb that is a great book by anyone who really is looking to live a sold out life to Christ.


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Ed Pugh

 2005/3/1 17:43Profile
philologos
Member



Joined: 2003/7/18
Posts: 6566
Reading, UK

 Re:

Quote:
I don't see any distinction. And this also illustrates a form of legalism.



I think you sense it even if you don't 'see' it. This is why you refuse to say "God became a man". You believe that somehow God presenced Himself in the person of Jesus. This is not what the Bible teaches; it teaches that God became man. Here is the scriptural revelation, everything else is speculation.(Joh 1:14 KJV) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
The first statement, in the original, is ginomai, which means 'to come into being'. When he had become man, he 'resided' among us. God takes up residence in human beings by His Spirit as a result of regeneration, but God did not take up residence (reside) in Jesus. In Jesus, the Word [u]became[/u] flesh, and then 'resided' with the human race as part of it.

A rhetorical question doesn't usually expect an answer; the answer is supposed to be obvious. The Son was communicating with the Father; is that complicated? That is not a rhetorical question.


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Ron Bailey

 2005/3/2 11:10Profile
RobertW
Member



Joined: 2004/2/12
Posts: 4636
St. Joseph, Missouri

 Re:

Quote:
A Rhetorical Question: Ron, during the time Jesus was on earth (God became fully human, as you say.) who was Jesus communicating with when He prayed?



Bubbaguy,

Do you hold to a modalist view of the Godhead?



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Robert Wurtz II

 2005/3/2 11:33Profile









 Re:

I wrote this before but I wanted to elaborate a bit more:

Motive for holiness is very important. Because of a mis-understanding of the motive of a Christian living holy, he is labeled legalistic by some.

Here is the difference:

It is legalism if you walk in holiness to please God. Nothing can please our Holy and Righteous God except for the cross of Jesus Christ.

But it is very much Christian to walk in holiness to praise God.

So do you do it to please God or to praise God?

"Oh, [b]worship[/b] the Lord in the beauty of holiness!" 1 Chronicles 16:29



 2005/3/2 14:12





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