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Discussion Forum : Scriptures and Doctrine : Purpose of Sprinkling with the Blood of Jesus Christ

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todd
Member



Joined: 2003/5/12
Posts: 573
California

 Purpose of Sprinkling with the Blood of Jesus Christ

I've been meditating on 1 Peter 1:1-2 (NASB) which speaks of those who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling with the blood of Jesus Christ.

I see in this an order of events, a sequence...
1. God the Father saw this would occur
2. The Spirit currently does the sanctifying work
3. Resulting in ("unto") or perhaps "leading to" obedience and sprinkling with the blood of Jesus Christ

I would like some help on the significance of the sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ. What does this mean? What is its purpose?

It appears that sprinkling is something that occurs after the sanctifying work of the Spirit has taken place. I might have thought that the sprinkling was part of the sanctifying work of the Spirit, not something that comes afterwords.

Any thoughts?

 2010/10/28 8:49Profile









 Re: Purpose of Sprinkling with the Blood of Jesus Christ


Hi Todd,

I had a post, which I accidentally lost, so here are the scriptures I'd brought to your attention. It might be more interesting for you this way! Be blessed!

Sparks says that 'sprinkling' had the effect of connecing the things that were sprinkled, together, as when Moses sprinkled the book and the people.

Young's 1
Pet 1:2 according to a foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ:

Notice his use of IN instead of 'by', and check an interlinear and Strong's numbers for the Greek. It's interesting!

Heb 10:19 - 22, 1 John 1:5 - 7

Peter was writing to Christians, so he is not describing how to be saved, but rather, how to remain in the faith; so, looking closer at 'obedience of faith': Rom 1:3 - 5, Rom 16:25, 26.

Always remember that Christ came to free us from sin so that we could regain fellowship with Father in heaven. The law, which had been interjected for a long season, was for the purpose of continually pricking the conscience (crown of thorns) of Jews (first) as to their shortcomings of God's glory. In His grace, God had commanded a system of sacrifices which offered not only ways for their sins to be covered, but also for them to thank and worship Him.

Now, Christ's sacrifice, and our being made fit through faith to receive the Holy Spirit, has replaced ALL that. THEREFORE, through the Spirit, we are enabled to do and become ALL that is required of us - not through intermittent spurts of faith - (but) by being believing continuously.

 2010/10/28 10:20
sojourner7
Member



Joined: 2007/6/27
Posts: 1573
Omaha, NE

 Re: Purpose of Sprinkling with the Blood of Jesus Christ

To the Jew, blood signifies relation;
blood means life. Blood was necessary
to cleanse and sanctify the offering.
Blood was required to atone for guilt
and wrong.
When GOD'S Own Son began a new covenant;
which was to signify relation and bring
life with GOD, it required HIS own blood
to cleanse and sanctify us, to atone not
only for Israel but for all of humanity!


_________________
Martin G. Smith

 2010/10/28 10:28Profile
twayneb
Member



Joined: 2009/4/5
Posts: 1297
Joplin, Missouri

 Re: Purpose of Sprinkling with the Blood of Jesus Christ

I think sojourner7 is right. Go to the Old Covenant and look at the significance of the sprinkling of the blood of the sacrifice. Then go to Hebrews 10 or so and look at the comparison of the blood of the Old Covenant and the blood of Jesus Christ in the New Covenant. The verse in 1 Peter you refer to is not a linear progression or a sequence of events.


_________________
Travis

 2010/10/28 22:01Profile
todd
Member



Joined: 2003/5/12
Posts: 573
California

 Re:

I might end up doing more on an in-depth subject on the subject.

I'm not sure why you think there is not a sequence. It says those who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God (past/first), by the sanctifying work of the Spirit (current/now/second), unto obedience and sprinkling with the blood of Jesus Christ (future/third). That is how I see the sequence. I could be missing something, but it comes across that way to me.

Otherwise, what does "unto" mean?

It sounds like Peter is saying God saw this would occur, the Spirit works to make it happen, and it leads to certain things.

I have some understanding that the blood of Jesus cleanses us from sin, but is that meant to be pictured as His blood being sprinkled on us? What is the significance of the sprinkling?

 2010/10/28 23:48Profile
Areadymind
Member



Joined: 2009/5/15
Posts: 1042
Pacific Ocean

 Re:

I think this is an incredibly good question Todd. Thank you for bringing it up. Now you have me thinking too.


_________________
Jeremiah Dusenberry

 2010/10/28 23:59Profile
Areadymind
Member



Joined: 2009/5/15
Posts: 1042
Pacific Ocean

 Re:

OK, I am going to go completely (well probably not so completely) out on a limb here...

In Leviticus 16:13-14 it says that "He (Aaron) shall put the incense upon the fire before the LORD, that the cloud of the incense may cover the mercy seat that is upon the testimony, that he die not: and he shall take of the blood of the bullock, and sprinkle it with his finger upon the mercy seat eastward; and before the mercy seat shall he sprinkle the blood with his finger seven (perfection) times."

The mercy seat sat upon the top of the Ark of the Covenant, and Two Seraphim gazed down upon it. Two angels were also looking down upon the resurrection/burial place of Christ...Luke 24:4. Peter will also mention ten verses later that the Angels desire to "look into" these things of the gospel.

I am no Greek Scholar at all, but if the KJV is right and Todd is right that there is a progression here, then it certainly is a curiosity. From reading it, I would agree there does seem to be a progression. If that is true then there ought to be clues in the context.

Verses 3-5 immediately follow and they speak also of three phases, although they appear to be recorded in a different order than verse two.

1.) Verse 3 emphasizes how we have been "begotten" (King James Version.) The ESV version renders it thus...rather than "begotten" it states, "caused us to be born again." As far as I understand, when I studied this...this is the single most powerful use of this "born again/begotten" idea anywhere in the New Testament other than when Jesus himself used it (I confirmed this with a friend of mine studying to be a greek scholar a few months back.)

This then echoes the "elect," past tense emphasis as Todd first pointed out. That lively hope...is a result of a "past tense" occurrence...aka the resurrection.

2.) Verse 4 looks forward to a future promise of an "inheritance incorruptible, and undefiled, and that fadeth not away, reserved IN HEAVEN FOR YOU." It is going to be very important to keep in mind the words I just caps locked.
So here we see a future tense occurrence correct?

3.) Verse 5 speaks of a present tense keeping, by the Power of God -Through Faith- unto salvation ready to be revealed at the last time.

I do not think you are wrong to suggest a progression even in the slightest as the following verses rehash this idea. Sorry to disagree with you Travis...I love you bro!

Galatians and Hebrews both make incredibly heavy cases that we are not only saved by faith but "kept" by faith. There were also articles "kept" under the mercy seat. Kudos to who can state what they were without looking it up :)

OK. Sorry this is so long winded...but there is an odd verse in the book of Revelation that I have always kept in the back of my mind, and I am wondering if it is just now starting to make sense because of your Question Todd.

"And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and an earthquake, and great hail." -Revelation 12:19

Here is one more verse that is incredibly interesting in relation...Numbers 7:89 says, "And when Moses was gone into the tabernacle of the congregation to speak with him then he heard the voice of one speaking unto him from off the mercy seat that was upon the ark of testimony, from between the two cherubims: and he spake unto him."

OK, by now we have seen quite a few connecting concepts...an Ark, Voices, Sprinkling of Blood, and the ark is in Heaven in Revelation.

Is it possible that this sprinkling that Peter is speaking of is specifically that sprinkling of Jesus Blood upon the mercy seat?

Here it gets a bit more scholastic, and I suspect this is something not commonly known. The Word used for propitiation in the New Testament is "hilasterios" It is COMPLETELY linked to the concept of the mercy seat and the blood sprinkled upon it being the blood of Christ. I am completely tempted to write out all of Spiros Zhodiates commentary on the word "hilasterios," but for the sake of brevity (LOL) I will say one really interesting point. In the Greek language, the Antonym to "hilasterios," is "anathema," which you may quickly recognize to mean "accursed." Propitiation, linked to the mercy seat where the blood of Christ is sprinkled is the opposite of curse, but freedom from it.

Thus...when God looks upon the Mercy Seat...he sees the blood of the innocent lamb, his Son, who became a curse for us...and interestingly Revelation seems to indicate that this ark (mercy seat) is in Heaven. And voices come out of it in heaven...just like voices came through it on earth toward Moses.

OK...so if Peter says there in verse 4 that this inheritance is incorruptable and undefiled (pure blood of a lamb) and fadeth not away, and is reserved IN HEAVEN. Is it altogether unreasonable to assume it is speaking of the blood sprinkled on the ark of the covenant in heaven?

This then would explain why the "sprinkling of blood" is Future tense. Because we will enter into our inheritance based upon the Blood in heaven, which is yet "future" for us. Though it is present tense with God. Christs blood saves us, keeps us, and presents us faultless before his Father. It is also worth noting that 1John says that we have an "Advocate" with the Father. 1 John 1:1-2, where interestingly enough the word Propitiation is used again. The implication being...Christs Blood ever advocates for us...and that advocation cannot be separated from the idea of the blood on the mercy seat.

Is it possible that the voices heard in Revelation out of the ark are our prayers? Our prayers made pure to God through the blood of Christ through the sprinkling of His blood? If so, it would seem that the Ark of the Covenant is the PA system between man and God. As Moses heard voices from heaven through the mercy seat...

Well, uhhhh I guess that is my stab at it. Sorry for the length.


_________________
Jeremiah Dusenberry

 2010/10/29 2:04Profile
mguldner
Member



Joined: 2009/12/4
Posts: 1817
Kansas

 Re:

Wow that is an interesting post Jeremiah I understand your logic :).

Something that may be consider further is Christ being eternal, I believe we no longer have the Old Covenant temple laws not because strictly the start of the new Covenant but because Christ Sacrifice made was/is eternally made for all sin. Meaning the Old Covenant temple sacrifices made with animals couldn't add to what Christ did this is like saying which is Larger Infinitey or Infinitey times two? This example is a paradox meaning they are equal being infinitey is a number that never ends and so two infinitey is illogical, SO Christ's sacrifice was infinitely made anything further that is tried to be added is like trying to add onto infinitey which never stops so its quite pointless to try.

I apologize if that is off topic, but the blood of Christ is not only for yesterday or even today, but for also the future to come. Because Christ Jesus is the Same Yesterday, Today, and Forever this I believe includes His eternal sacrifice.


_________________
Matthew Guldner

 2010/10/29 2:31Profile
Areadymind
Member



Joined: 2009/5/15
Posts: 1042
Pacific Ocean

 Re: Matthew

Actually Matthew your thought is not off topic at all because Revelation 13:8 says, "And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, (the beast) whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world." Christs blood is eternal! (Ever wonder why there needed to be a virgin birth?)


_________________
Jeremiah Dusenberry

 2010/10/29 2:37Profile
mguldner
Member



Joined: 2009/12/4
Posts: 1817
Kansas

 Re:

Wasn't this because the blood line of the father is what was past on to the children? If this isn't correct let me know I don't mind correction at all :)


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Matthew Guldner

 2010/10/29 2:40Profile





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