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Romans510
Member



Joined: 2009/4/23
Posts: 5
USA

 Sinlessness of Christ

Dear Saints,

I am looking for some articles on this topic. I hope my post isn't considered spam, or as trying to instigate a debate. Rather, I am having a friendly discussion on this matter elsewhere, and hope for direction toward reputable resources. Naturally, SermonIndex is the first place to which I have come. I found the one by M.R. DeHaan, M.D., and wonder what else there is in printed format.

Thank you in advance for your suggestions.

 2010/6/3 12:12Profile
Romans510
Member



Joined: 2009/4/23
Posts: 5
USA

 Re: Sinlessness of Christ

I should've eleborated somewhat on my request, as I don't believe this was an odd one, but rather, perhaps, a very perplexing and misunderstood topic. Conversing with friends, one of them brought up an interesting question regarding Jesus' nature: being God, does that mean He was unable to sin, or, being also man, does that mean he merely suppressed a sin-nature. I am persuaded by scripture that He was unable to sin, but I felt inadequate in making the case, since, I suppose, other verses could be used to say otherwise.

In my search, I was directed by a most gracious instructor to a chapter from Andrew Murray's book "Like Christ", specifically, Chapter 15. Therefore, my search is over.





 2010/6/6 11:20Profile









 Re:

Quote:
I am persuaded by scripture that He was unable to sin, but I felt inadequate in making the case,




Heb 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
heb 2:18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.

If Christ was unable to sin then how could he be tempted? If he wasn't able to be tempted then how can he help me when I am tempted?

 2010/6/6 11:35









 Re: Sinlessness of Christ


Hi Romans510,

Please read from the beginning of this download. http://mp3.biblebase.com/details.php?file=43 - The Doctrine of the Holy Spirit in Romans.

You'll need Adobe Reader if you don't have it already.

The booklet may come at your topic from an angle you hadn't considered - holiness - but the writer had considered the many facets of your question and more. I hope you are blessed.

 2010/6/11 17:24









 Re: Sinlessness of Christ


I would add from James 1:

12 Blessed [is] the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: 14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. 15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. 16 Do not err, my beloved brethren. 17 Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the Father of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning.

and, preceding those quoted by sscott

Heb 2:16 For verily he took not on [him the nature of] angels; but he took on [him] the seed of Abraham.


Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:


It is important to separate 'sin' (the cause of sins) and 'sinful flesh'. People do not sin only because of sinful flesh. Sinful flesh is fallen flesh. Originally, Adam's flesh was not fallen, and he had a spirit which was free from sin which could fellowship with God - according to Luke, his Father - Luke 3:38.

So, what did unfallen flesh look like, if the spirit inside was free from all sin? That's an unanswerable question, but, some preachers would suggest that there was a glory gilding the first man and woman which was forced to depart because of sin. Christ came without the 'glory', also. Maybe read Romans 5 as well.

I'm suggesting that while Christ had no sin within Him, and, He did not DESIRE to sin (because He was the Son of God), He did have to contend with the urges and temptations to His flesh, because that's what Paul seems to be implying in Rom 8:3. But the word 'likeness' is extremely important.

Psalm 22 is also worth reading, as there is a breakthrough point which is repeated in Heb 2:12. The first section, from v 1 - v 21, ably describe what Christ was experiencing on the cross. There is a lot of meaning hidden in those verses: how he was reminding himself of truth which he had known, and, how the various spiritual pressures were manifesting themselves to him, which he had to overcome without sinning, to destroy the devil (on the cross - Heb 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.)



If Christ had ever sinned, for whatever reason, He would not have been able to give His life in substitutionary sacrifice for mankind. He chose to not sin.

Through new birth, we also are brought into a spiritual condition which enables us to choose to 'not sin': 1 John 3:9 'and he can not sin'.

This could be taken as a reverse proof that Christ did not sin, because, we are made like Him: 1 John 3:1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not. 2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is. 3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure.

 2010/6/11 17:55
twayneb
Member



Joined: 2009/4/5
Posts: 2256
Joplin, Missouri

 Re:

Romans 5:10: I would like to add to what sscott was saying as he was hitting on the crux of the matter in answer to the question.

Look at Php 2:6-8
(6) Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
(7) But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
(8) And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

Look at the phrase "became obedient". Obedience is an act of or choice of the will. The very fact that I am obedient means that I could have been otherwise. If it is impossible to do otherwise, then obedience loses its meaning and the statement itself is meaningless.

Look at Heb 4:15
(15) For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

Again we see that He was, "yet without sin." If it were impossible for Jesus to give in to temptation then it is not even worth mentioning that He was, "yet without sin." The very statement would lose all of its meaning. But He was tempted, meaning that He could have given in to the temptation and that the temptation was real in His flesh.

Some people envision Christ as "God in an earth suit", retaining all of His divine nature and yet walking this earth in a physical body. Not so according to Philippians 2:6-8. He did not think it taking something that did not belong to Him to be equal with God (He WAS.). But He emptied Himself (look at the Greek here) of everything divine and became man just as I am. Many times we see Jesus claiming to do nothing of Himself, but to be operating only as a man filled with the power of the Holy Spirit. See john 8:28 and John 14:10 and others. This does not detract from His divinity nor does it make Him any less God. Jesus IS God. But it is the act of laying aside the divine nature and operating as we do that made the substitutionary work of the atonement effective. Without this laying aside of divine privilege the atonement itself becomes meaningless. 1 Cor. 15:21.

The cool part of this is that Jesus desires to fill us with the same Holy Spirit that He was filled with. He said the comforter was with us, but would be IN us. John 14:17. You see, not realizing that Jesus operated as a man filled with the Holy Spirit on this earth is why some people find verses such as John 14:12 so hard to comprehend. We can do the same works and greater than Jesus did. Why? Because we can be filled with the same Holy Spirit that Jesus was. The power source, the comforter, the Holy Spirit, is the SAME in us as it was in Him. He did no works out of His own divinity, His own standing as God. He did it as a man filled with the abiding and indwelling presence of the Holy Spirit and then He offered that same abiding power to us. Praise God!!!


_________________
Travis

 2010/6/12 9:28Profile
twayneb
Member



Joined: 2009/4/5
Posts: 2256
Joplin, Missouri

 Re:

AlivetoGod: Just read the entirety of your last post. Amen!! I was blessed.


_________________
Travis

 2010/6/12 9:31Profile
jerryaustin1
Member



Joined: 2008/9/2
Posts: 60
Louisiana

 Re:

It all boils down to whether deity can sin. He can not. While Jesus became flesh (John 1:14), He was also God (Colossians 2:9). Scrupture testifys that it is impossible for God to lie (please forgive
the lack of reference but you can look it up). If it is impossible for God to lie, is it possible Him to commit any sin? I realize that He was really man and that no less than I am. Being a man involves freewill. But we must take note of something else. He was also God. Being God involves the inability of sinning. So you have freewill and the inability to sin. He had the choice to sin but it was something that was impossible that He would do it.


_________________
Jerry Austin

 2010/6/12 10:28Profile
jerryaustin1
Member



Joined: 2008/9/2
Posts: 60
Louisiana

 Re:

It is absurd but give it a thought. Can I tempt you to fly to mars flapping your arms?


_________________
Jerry Austin

 2010/6/12 10:32Profile









 Re:

Quote:
It all boils down to whether deity can sin. He can not. While Jesus became flesh (John 1:14), He was also God (Colossians 2:9). Scrupture testifys that it is impossible for God to lie (please forgive
the lack of reference but you can look it up). If it is impossible for God to lie, is it possible Him to commit any sin? I realize that He was really man and that no less than I am. Being a man involves freewill. But we must take note of something else. He was also God. Being God involves the inability of sinning. So you have freewill and the inability to sin. He had the choice to sin but it was something that was impossible that He would do it.



So are you saying this verse is a lie and shouldn't be in the bible? It doesn't say he had a choice to sin...it says he was "TEMPTED".

Heb 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
heb 2:18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.


Can you give me your understanding of this verse?

 2010/6/12 11:39





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