Why is it that only Jesus refers to himself as the son of man in the Gospel of John (there are at-least 12 instances when he does this).The disciples refer to him as the son of God. What is Jesus trying to tell us ?
Jesus refers to Himself as the Son of Manbecause He was also fully human and felt,hungered, thirsted, and was weary just asany other man!!
_________________Martin G. Smith
1 Corinthians 15, Romans 5, and Philippians 2:4-13 Might shed some light on this for you Joe. Blessings. -Jeremiah. *Edit
Gal 4:7 Therefore you are no longer a slave but a son, and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ. Christ is the Son of Man. We who submit to God through Christ become co-heirs with Christ. All who are sons of God are so because of Christ's death and resurrection. We who are reconciled to God through the blood of Christ will be saved by His life. He is the only man through whom man can be saved, He is the Son of Man.