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 Easter or Passover?



[b]Is there a difference in Bible Versions?[/b]

Many critics of the King James Bible point to Acts 12:1-4 to prove that the King James is a mistranslation. The King James indicates that Peter was to be kept in prison until after "Easter". All of the newer Bible versions have changed this to "Passover" instead.

Is this change from the King James from Easter to Passover by the textural critics Biblically sound? What does the Bible itself have to say about Passover and the feast of unleavened bread?

What Was Easter Originally? The word " Easter" is found one time in the entire authorized King James Bible:

Acts 12:1-7 (KJV)
"Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after [b]Easter[/b] to bring him forth to the people."

So here we have a situation in Acts chapter 12. Herod had just beheaded James, it made the Jews happy. Now Herod wanted to kill Peter also, but he wanted to wait until after "Easter" according to the King James Bible. [b] Notice that the NIV bible has the word "Passover" instead of "Easter."

Scripture from the King James Bible proves that "Easter" is in fact, the proper word to use.[/b]

The word "Easter" here, does NOT refer to "Easter" as we know it today, nor does it refer to the word " Passover" as it is wrongly translated in all newer Bible versions.

Though many Christians celebrate "Easter" in remembrance of the resurrection, Easter was originally a pagan festival (etymology of your dictionary should confirm this),[b] which is what Acts 12:4 refers to and not the Passover.[/b] We can determine this by looking at the passage.

The Webster's New World Dictionary gives the following etymology (origin and development of a word), for the word "Easter":

[b]originally, name of pagan vernal [spring time] festival ALMOST COINCIDENT in date with paschal [Passover] festival of the church,

--Eastre, dawn goddess --Austro, dawn[/b]

In other words, Easter was originally a pagan festival celebrated in the spring time.

[b]"Easter" is Only Translated Correctly in the King James Bible

The word, "Easter" has been incorrectly translated "Passover" in ALL Bible versions except for the authorized King James Bible.[/b]

How do we know this? The Bible proves it (the Bible is always its own prooftext). Notice again in the passage of Acts 12:1-4, King Herod killed James. When he saw that it pleased the Jews, he also took Peter. Notice that Herod took Peter DURING the DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD and was going to bring him forth to the people AFTER Easter.

[b]"In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread." (Leviticus 23:5,6)

So we learn from this Scripture that the day of Passover fell on the 14th day of the first month, and then the "FEAST of UNLEAVENED BREAD" began upon the 15th day of the first month.

The days of unleavened bread came AFTER Passover! Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the "days of unleavened bread." This means that the day of Passover had ALREADY occurred. "Easter" could not have been Passover, because Passover occurred BEFORE the days of unleavened bread. Passover had come and gone. Herod decided to bring Peter forth AFTER Easter.[/b] This is the sequence:

1. PASSOVER

2. DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD

3. EASTER


Let's look at it from the book of Numbers as well:

[b]Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter ( which had not come yet).

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...

Just imagine what other "changes" to God's Spirit Breathed Word have been performed by the "textural critics", with their scissors and black markers. What a shame, yet many cannot see any difference, and even prefer the "newer" versions! [/b]


Sincerely,

Walter

 2008/11/19 2:28
philologos
Member



Joined: 2003/7/18
Posts: 6566
Reading, UK

 Re: Easter or Passover?

What a peculiar exegesis. The Greek word translated 'Easter' here is used on 28 other occasions in the KJV where it is translated 'Passover'. As a strong advocate of the KJV I prefer to regard it as wrong in Acts 12:4 and right in the other 20 instances rather than wrong 28 times and right only once.

The Greek word 'pascha' is a transliteration of the Hebrew [url=http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H6453&t=KJV]pecach (Strong's H6453) [/url] The Hebrew word is pronounced "peh'·sakh" and hence the Greek version "pascha". In the LXX text of [color=0000FF]On the fourteenth day of the first month at twilight is the LORD’S Passover. Lev 23:5 NKJV[/color] the word for 'Passover' is 'pascha'.

The KJV translators were simply complying with Instruction No 3 of King James instructions to 'return to' 'ecclesiastical language'(*). The pattern can be seen clearly by comparing Tyndale, Geneva and the KJV.

[color=0000FF](t) and when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternion of soldiers to be kept, intending after [u]Easter[/u] to bring him forth to the people.

(g) And when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to be kept, intending after the [u]Passover[/u] to bring him forth to the people.

(k) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after [u]Easter[/u] {Gr. Passover} to bring him forth to the people.[/color]

* No 3. The ould ecclesiasticall words to be kept viz. as the Word Churche not to be translated 'Congregation' etc.

This specific instruction of King James has had a profound effect on the KJV and on all subsequent translations.


_________________
Ron Bailey

 2008/11/19 6:19Profile









 Re:



To Philogos:

My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.

Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the "days of unleavened bread."

Passover occured BEFORE the feast of unleavened bread. Passover was the 14th of Abib, starting at 6:00 P.M. Wednesday night and ending at 6:00 P.M. Thursday. At 6:00 P.M. Thursday, the 15th of Abib, started the seven day "Feast of Unleavened Bread". This day (the 15th) was a High Holy Day, and celebrated as a Sabath day, eventhough the day did not occur on Saturday (the real Sabath day).

Scripture is clear, specifically, as I posted earlier:

Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). [b]After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter, it is referring the Pagan celebration of Easter, not the Passover. He was arrested after the Passover had actually occurred.[/b]

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. "[b] Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...[/b]

xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

[b]Philogos, please respond with Scripture to prove your point. Passover (Pascha) had already occurred before Peter was arrested. Herod intended to bring Peter before the people after Easter. How do we know this? Because he was arrested AFTER Pascha (Passover).

Instruction # 3 definitely has merit in this case and surely did not come from fallen man, but from God through the Holy Spirit and placed into the mind of the King.[/b]

Sincerely,

Walter

Quote:

philologos wrote:
What a "peculiar exegesis". The Greek word translated 'Easter' here is used on 28 other occasions in the KJV where it is translated 'Passover'. As a strong advocate of the KJV I prefer to regard it as wrong in Acts 12:4 and right in the other 20 instances rather than wrong 28 times and right only once.

The Greek word 'pascha' is a transliteration of the Hebrew [url=http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H6453&t=KJV]pecach (Strong's H6453) [/url] The Hebrew word is pronounced "peh'·sakh" and hence the Greek version "pascha". In the LXX text of [color=0000FF]On the fourteenth day of the first month at twilight is the LORD’S Passover. Lev 23:5 NKJV[/color] the word for 'Passover' is 'pascha'.

The KJV translators were simply complying with Instruction No 3 of King James instructions to 'return to' 'ecclesiastical language'(*). The pattern can be seen clearly by comparing Tyndale, Geneva and the KJV.

[color=0000FF](t) and when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternion of soldiers to be kept, intending after [u]Easter[/u] to bring him forth to the people.

(g) And when he had caught him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to be kept, intending after the [u]Passover[/u] to bring him forth to the people.

(k) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after [u]Easter[/u] {Gr. Passover} to bring him forth to the people.[/color]

* No 3. The ould ecclesiasticall words to be kept viz. as the Word Churche not to be translated 'Congregation' etc.

This specific instruction of King James has had a profound effect on the KJV and on all subsequent translations.

 2008/11/19 11:25
philologos
Member



Joined: 2003/7/18
Posts: 6566
Reading, UK

 Re:

Quote:
My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.


Where was God when the Geneva Bible was translated? Do you really want me to show you the errors in the KJV?


Quote:
When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...


Even if this were right, and it isn't, this would be an interpretation built into the translation.



Quote:
Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter, it is referring the Pagan celebration of Easter, not the Passover. He was arrested after the Passover had actually occurred.


If this were the case why not use the Greek word for Easter? In any case you clearly don't understand that the word Passover relates to both a day AND a period of time.


_________________
Ron Bailey

 2008/11/19 12:15Profile
ccchhhrrriiisss
Member



Joined: 2003/11/23
Posts: 4499


 Re:

Hi waltern...

Quote:
My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.

I think that this is your argument -- regardless of what the evidence says.

It seems, at least to me, that this was a poorly translated word in the KJV translation. The source for the KJV literally says that the word is "paschal" (literally, "the passover"). So one might ask: Was the source part of God's promise to "preserve" His Word -- or was the eventual product (the KJV) the promise?

Or perhaps God's promise to preserve His Word has nothing to do with a written collection of 66 books (or more, if you use the original KJV). I wonder: What about all of those nations, languages and years in which there wasn't a KJV...or a Textus Receptus...etc...?

:-(


_________________
Christopher

 2008/11/19 12:16Profile









 Re:



To Philologos:

You stated:

"If this were the case why not use the Greek word for Easter? In any case you clearly don't understand that the word Passover relates to both a day AND a period of time."

my response:

[b]Please provide Biblical prooftext to your statement above that "the word Passover related to both a day AND a period of time".[/b]

Thank you,

Walter

Quote:

philologos wrote:
Quote:
My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.


Where was God when the Geneva Bible was translated? Do you really want me to show you the errors in the KJV?


Quote:
When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...


Even if this were right, and it isn't, this would be an interpretation built into the translation.



Quote:
Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter, it is referring the Pagan celebration of Easter, not the Passover. He was arrested after the Passover had actually occurred.


If this were the case why not use the Greek word for Easter? In any case you clearly don't understand that the word Passover relates to both a day AND a period of time.

 2008/11/19 14:40









 Re:

Quote:

ccchhhrrriiisss wrote:

Hi waltern...
Quote:
My response would be that God has supernaturally preserved His Word, like He has promised us He would do. In this case, by the instruction #3 of the King.

I think that this is your argument -- regardless of what the evidence says.

It seems, at least to me, that this was a poorly translated word in the KJV translation. The source for the KJV literally says that the word is "paschal" (literally, "the passover"). So one might ask: Was the source part of God's promise to "preserve" His Word -- or was the eventual product (the KJV) the promise?

Or perhaps God's promise to preserve His Word has nothing to do with a written collection of 66 books (or more, if you use the original KJV). I wonder: What about all of those nations, languages and years in which there wasn't a KJV...or a Textus Receptus...etc...?


xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx


Walter's response to Ccchhhrrriiisss:

[b][color=0033FF]Since I am waiting for Philogos to answer my post by Bible Proof text, I will now address your post, Ccchhhrrriiisss.[/color][/b]

My post has nothing to do with a poor translation or anything. Please, sir, prove your position by Scripture instead of by condescension, insinuation and innunendo. This might work well in a college classroom with young adults designed to lead them away from one position and to another position that the professor supports,[u][b] but it has no value here.[/b][/u]

Please, prove the following incorrect, by Bible proof-text[u][b]---only then ccchhhrrriiisss will you be able to prove your position.[/b][/u]

[b]This was my post, please respond to it line by line with Scripture, (with no insinuation, innuendo, or condescension):[/b]

What Was Easter Originally? The word " Easter" is found one time in the entire authorized King James Bible:

Acts 12:1-7 (KJV)
"Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

So here we have a situation in Acts chapter 12. Herod had just beheaded James, it made the Jews happy. Now Herod wanted to kill Peter also, but he wanted to wait until after "Easter" according to the King James Bible. Notice that the NIV bible has the word "Passover" instead of "Easter."

Scripture from the King James Bible proves that "Easter" is in fact, the proper word to use.

The word "Easter" here, does NOT refer to "Easter" as we know it today, nor does it refer to the word " Passover" as it is wrongly translated in all newer Bible versions.

Though many Christians celebrate "Easter" in remembrance of the resurrection, Easter was originally a pagan festival (etymology of your dictionary should confirm this), which is what Acts 12:4 refers to and not the Passover. We can determine this by looking at the passage.

The Webster's New World Dictionary gives the following etymology (origin and development of a word), for the word "Easter":

originally, name of pagan vernal [spring time] festival ALMOST COINCIDENT in date with paschal [Passover] festival of the church,

--Eastre, dawn goddess --Austro, dawn

In other words, Easter was originally a pagan festival celebrated in the spring time.

"Easter" is Only Translated Correctly in the King James Bible

The word, "Easter" has been incorrectly translated "Passover" in ALL Bible versions except for the authorized King James Bible.

How do we know this? The Bible proves it (the Bible is always its own prooftext). Notice again in the passage of Acts 12:1-4, King Herod killed James. When he saw that it pleased the Jews, he also took Peter. Notice that Herod took Peter DURING the DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD and was going to bring him forth to the people AFTER Easter.

"In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread." (Leviticus 23:5,6)

So we learn from this Scripture that the day of Passover fell on the 14th day of the first month, and then the "FEAST of UNLEAVENED BREAD" began upon the 15th day of the first month.

The days of unleavened bread came AFTER Passover! Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the "days of unleavened bread." This means that the day of Passover had ALREADY occurred. "Easter" could not have been Passover, because Passover occurred BEFORE the days of unleavened bread. Passover had come and gone. Herod decided to bring Peter forth AFTER Easter. This is the sequence:

1. PASSOVER

2. DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD

3. EASTER


Let's look at it from the book of Numbers as well:

Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twenty first day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter ( which had not come yet).

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...

Just imagine what other "changes" to God's Spirit Breathed Word have been performed by the "textural critics", with their scissors and black markers. What a shame, yet many cannot see any difference, and even prefer the "newer" versions!


[b]Sincerely,

Walter[/b]

 2008/11/19 21:39
ccchhhrrriiisss
Member



Joined: 2003/11/23
Posts: 4499


 Re:

Waltern...

Brother, how can I prove something that already speaks for itself?!?

The greek word used for "Easter" in Acts 12:4 -- from the very source used for the KJV itself -- is the word used for "Passover" every other time it is used!!!

Yet you see what others attibute as an apparent "mistake" -- and embrace something that is entirely EXTRA-Biblical!!!

Brother, you believe that God has "perfectly preserved" His Word...and that it is found in the KJV (even though, in this case, the original source used for this passage disagrees with the way it was translated). So you argue away this apparent mistake. But what about the other mistakes in the KJV? I pointed these out in another thread. Most of these examples are from the Old Testament (and, thus, not from the Textus Receptus). Yet they are undeniable mistakes nonetheless. If God "perfectly preserved" His written Word "down to the last dot and tittle" (as you have said before), then how come those mistakes exist in the text? Take, for instance, the difference between II Samuel 24:9 and I Chronicles 21:5. Notice a discrepency in the numbers here?

How about the differences in numbers between II Samuel 24:24 and I Chronicles 21:22-25? I Kings 4:26 and II Chronicles 9:25? I Kings 5:16 and II Chronicles 2:2? I Kings 7:15-22 and II Chronicles 3:15-17? I Kings 7:26 and II Chronicles 4:5? I Kings 16:6-8 and II Chronicles 16:1? II Kings 8:25-26 and II Chronicles 22:2?

Should I go on? These are apparent contraditions that occur in the Old Testament of the KJV (and some other versions). Is God's Word perfectly preserved to the last "dot and tittle" -- or does it contain some errors?

Your entire argument for the KJV seems based upon the notion that the KJV (and almost, the KJV alone) is supernaturally "perserved" as entirely and completely perfect in every way. Yet even the translators refute this in their preface! Not only did the KJV include the books of the Apocrypha, but it included (and still includes) several apparent errors. While many of these were handed down in sources BEFORE the KJV, the fact that they exist in the KJV bears testimony against your claim that the KJV is perfect down to that last dot and tittle.

Brother, I believe that God has preserved His Word. I just don't believe that this perfection is found in the written form (at least, from a single, unified source). The various books of the Bible were separate and copied independently by men over thousands of years. It is difficult to lay accusation against such men who might very well have tried to keep their copies pure. However, as these examples suggest, sometime they erred.

So what is that perfectly preserved Word of God? It is none other than Jesus Christ! He is the Author and Finisher of our faith! He is the perfect Word of God to whom we can turn in times of need. The best efforts of men are still flawed -- but our Word of God is living! We can turn to Him for the best adequate understanding of His Word!

But to conclude that the KJV was entirely perfect (down to the last dot and tittle) is to simply make excuses for what are obvious (but probably unintentional) errors.


_________________
Christopher

 2008/11/20 0:08Profile









 Re:



Well Ccchhhrrriiisss, I have learned to expect nothing more from you than what you continue to post, and that seems to be high on opinion and low to non-existent on Bible Scripture to support your opinions.

My challenge to you still stands. Prove to me, through scripture why the King James is wrong. Prove to all of us how Peter could be arrested during the feast of unleavened bread, that started on the 15th of Abib, and continued for seven days through the 21st of Abib, and then be turned over to the people by Herod at the Passover. The Passover HAD ALREADY OCCURRED ON THE 14TH OF ABIB, BEFORE THE FEAST OF UNLEAVED BREAD OCCURRED!

[b]The King James rightly translates this word as the pagan ceremony of easter, that was celebrated after the feast of unleavened bread, going back in history all the way to Babylon. [/b]

Was the pagan festival of Easter known at the this time in history? Were the Romans keeping Easter as a day of celebration?

This is what History has to say about this event:

The pagan festival of Easter, with its hot cross buns and Easter Sunday sunrise services was well known in ancient Babylon and Rome centuries before the events recorded in Acts 12.

[b]Let me quote a short passage about EASTER from Alexander Hislop's book The Two Babylons. (ISBN 0 7136 0470 0):
Quote: "Then look at Easter. What means the term Easter itself? It is not a Christian name. It bears its Chaldean origin on its forehead. Easter is nothing else than Astarte, one of the titles of Beltis, the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, whose name, as pronounced by the people of Nineveh, was evidently identical with that now in common use in this country. That name, as found by Layard on the Assyrian monuments, is Ishtar. The worship of Bel and Astarte was very early introduced into Britain, along with the Druids, "the priests of the groves" (page 103)[/b]
xxxxxxxxxxx
No scholar doubts the fact that Easter is a pagan festival which came down from ancient times, long before the Christian era.

[b]The next question is: Did some Israelites keep Easter and worship the QUEEN OF HEAVEN? Did they bake hot cross buns for Ishtar - Easter? THE ANSWER, SURPRISINGLY, IS AGAIN--YES!

Ancient Israel worshipped THE QUEEN OF HEAVEN- ISHTAR and they honoured her each year with special cakes (buns) and drink offerings.[/b]

[b][color=0000CC]I quote Scripture, as prooftext for my position:

Jeremiah 7:18 The children gather wood, and the fathers kindle the fire, and the women knead their dough, to make cakes to the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, and to pour out drink offerings unto other gods, that they may provoke me to anger.

Jeremiah 44:18 But since we left off to burn incense to the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, we have wanted all things, and have been consumed by the sword and by the famine. 19: And when we burned incense to the QUEEN OF HEAVEN, and poured out drink offerings unto her, did we make her cakes to worship her, and pour out drink offerings unto HER, without our men? 20: Then Jeremiah said unto all the people, to the men, and to the women, and to all the people which had given him that answer, saying, 21: The incense that ye burned in the cities of Judah, and in the streets of Jerusalem, ye, and your fathers, your kings, and your princes, and the people of the land, did not the LORD remember them, and came it not into his mind? 22: So that the LORD could no longer bear, because of the evil of your doings, and because of the ABOMINATIONS which ye have committed; therefore is your land a desolation, and an astonishment, and a curse, without an inhabitant, as at this day.
23: Because ye have burned incense, and because ye have sinned against the LORD, and have not obeyed the voice of the LORD, nor walked in his law, nor in his statutes, nor in his testimonies; therefore this evil is happened unto you, as at this day. 24: Moreover Jeremiah said unto all the people, and to all the women, Hear the word of the LORD, all Judah that are in the land of Egypt: 25: Thus saith the LORD of hosts, the God of Israel, saying; Ye and your wives have both spoken with your mouths, and fulfilled with your hand, saying, We will surely perform our vows that we have vowed, to burn incense to the queen of heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her: ye will surely accomplish your vows, and surely perform your vows.

Oh yes, many ancient Israelites kept Easter. Modern Israelis still do today. In summary we can say that when Herod, after the Passover and during the days of unleavened bread shut up Peter intending to bring him out after Easter, Herod meant EXACTLY WHAT THE KING JAMES VERSION IS SAYING. HE MEANT EASTER NOT PASSOVER WHICH HAD ALREADY COME AND GONE. THIS MEANS THAT EVERY TRANSLATION WHICH USES THE WORD PASSOVER IN ACTS 12:3-4 IS, STRICTLY SPEAKING, INCORRECT. EASTER IS THE CORRECT WORD AND THE KING JAMES USES IT.[/color][/b]

In conclusion, I challenge you to post Scripture instead of opinion TO REFUTE MY POST. OPINION WITHOUT THE PROOF OF SCRIPTURE IS NOTHING MORE THAN ERROR!

"Solo Scriptura"

Sincerely,

Walter

Quote:

ccchhhrrriiisss wrote:
Waltern...

Brother, how can I prove something that already speaks for itself?!?

Delted

 2008/11/20 0:34
ccchhhrrriiisss
Member



Joined: 2003/11/23
Posts: 4499


 Re:

Waltern...

Try reading my post again. This time, check out the examples that I listed in the KJV. Tell me if there are any reasons for these apparent contradictions -- and if not, why you continue to claim that the KJV is the "perfect and preserved" Word of God. You previously claimed that the KJV is "perfect and preserved down to the last dot and tittle." Yet these examples say otherwise.

:-)

BTW, I reject your defense of the word "Easter" in the KJV's version of Acts 12:4. It seems like you are really stretching on this one...when the answer seems to point to a simple translation error. In fact, nearly EVERY OTHER VERSION of the Bible -- older and newer, and from the same source -- translate the word as "Passover." The same word used for "Easter" in the KJV's translation of that verse is translated at "Passover" every other time.

If you can't tell, I used the Bible to show you that the word used for "Easter" in that passage appears elsewhere throughout the KJV as "Passover" (look it up, would you, in the Strong's). You, on the other hand, have simply created (or repeated?) an argument to explain the apparent mistranslation of a particular translation that you deem to be flawless.

Brother, is it possible that you are trying to place a square into a round hole? If a person reading Greek were to read that passage...from the TR...in Greek...what do you think that he would understand it to mean? It seems like you are saying that the source used for the KJV "got it wrong."


_________________
Christopher

 2008/11/20 1:27Profile





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