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 Re:

In light of this thread I posted this article:

[b]Divorce and Remarriage. Does God Permit It? -feeney[/b]
http://www.sermonindex.net/modules/newbb/viewtopic.php?topic_id=18042&forum=36


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SI Moderator - Greg Gordon

 2007/7/16 18:16Profile
ZealForTruth
Member



Joined: 2007/6/26
Posts: 22


 Re:

Iansmith,

"In the example, they over-emphasized the polygamy issue, and ended up neglecting the need to take care of these women."

I heard of Brother Zac Poonen talking about this very issue, how some people magnify one truth in the Bible at the expense of another truth. Just like the Pharisees and the Sabbath day, where they would not do good to anybody.

Very interesting point.

 2007/7/16 18:31Profile
ZealForTruth
Member



Joined: 2007/6/26
Posts: 22


 Re:

Here's an interesting thing somebody pointed out to me a while ago that I never picked up on.

1 Corinthians 7:10,11 “To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not SEPARATE from her husband. But if she does, she must remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. And a husband must not DIVORCE his wife."

I was asking an older person from church if God still requires a christian woman, for example, who became christian after she was married, to remain with her abusive husband who is not a christian and who does not want to divorce her.

The answer he gave me was interesting and he pointed out to this verse that said, the woman can SEPARATE, in other words, remove herself physically from her husband, without divorcing him. And if her husband falls into sin, then she is free to remarry. So this is basically God giving the woman a way out if she is being abused physically.

But this is no way a means for a woman to get out of her marriage if she doesn't like her husband any longer, because as verse 10 said, "To the married I give this command... A wife must NOT separate from her husband."

Interesting response, because I though being "separated" and being "divorced" meant the same thing.

In Christ,

brother Alin

 2007/7/16 18:52Profile
lastblast
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Joined: 2004/10/16
Posts: 528
Michigan

 Re:

Hi Alin,

I disagree with you. I haven't read all the responses yet, but I'm sure someone has already said what I am going to.

If a wife (a second) comes from an unlawful marriage (never having been in a covenant marriage herself), she is FREE to marry another, since her vows were not taken lawfully to begin with. The only divorced woman who is prohibited from marrying again is one who is bound to her covenant husband until death (Rom. 7:2-3, I Cor. 7:39). A woman who is committing adultery in the Lord sight (by entering into an unlawful marrige with a man who already has a wife) is NOT bound to him----he already has a wife he is bound to...........Blessings........


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Cindy

 2007/7/16 22:24Profile
lastblast
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Joined: 2004/10/16
Posts: 528
Michigan

 Re:

Quote:
There's also an OT law that a divorced person who then gets married to someone else can't re-marry the original spouse.



That would be Deut. 24:1-4...........since Jesus said Moses grated divorce for hardheartedness and since the beginning this was not so, Jesus was abrogating this "permission". Instead of a remarriage being lawful, Jesus taught that anyone who marries after a divorce is committing adultery, not entering into a lawful marriage (Mt. 5:32, 19:9-10, Mk. 10:1-12, Lk. 16:15-18, Rom. 7:2-3).

For a couple who enters into an adulterous union to repent of that union is nowhere forbidden by Jesus. As a matter of fact, forsaking sin is called for by Jesus. Just as He told the woman caught in adultery to "go and sin no more", so it is with those who are caught up in adulterous unions. His desire is for them to forsake their adulteries and sin no more.


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Cindy

 2007/7/16 22:39Profile









 Re:

Of course like most questions on SI I already have what I think is the answer but I just want to get more input. How many failed marriages would one have to have before he or she could be forgiven and saved by the blood of Jesus and become a new creation and have a new heart put in them to serve him?

1 Cor 1:26-2:1
26 Brothers, think of what you were when you were called. Not many of you were wise by human standards; not many were influential; not many were of noble birth. 27 But God chose the foolish things of the world to shame the wise; God chose the weak things of the world to shame the strong. 28 He chose the lowly things of this world and the despised things-and the things that are not-to nullify the things that are, 29 so that no one may boast before him. 30 It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God-that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption. 31 Therefore, as it is written: "Let him who boasts boast in the Lord."

1 Cor 15:9-11
9 For I am the least of the apostles and do not even deserve to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God. 10 But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace to me was not without effect. No, I worked harder than all of them-yet not I, but the grace of God that was with me. 11 Whether, then, it was I or they, this is what we preach, and this is what you believed.





 2007/7/16 22:41
ZealForTruth
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Joined: 2007/6/26
Posts: 22


 Re:

"Of course like most questions on SI I already have what I think is the answer but I just want to get more input."

Haha Moe, you hit the bullseye here! I think you spoke of a great truth, not just of SI, but of human nature ;)

 2007/7/17 3:57Profile
ZealForTruth
Member



Joined: 2007/6/26
Posts: 22


 Re:

Well Cindy,

What you said makes sense, but it brings many questions into my mind about what exactly is a "lawful marriage". Does it refer to a "legal lawfulness" or a "christian lawfulness". Isn't a legal marriage conducted by a government offical also sanctioned by God? And in some countries it's legal to get married to 2 women.

But on the other hand, I highly doubt that God would sanction even a "legal" marriage between 2 homosexuals.

But you do bring up some interesting points about her not being bound since it's not a lawful marriage, to be married to someone who already has a wife, but it still brings one question into my mind. Even if God considers her marriage adulterous, she still must get divorced in the eyes of the government, b/c she's still legally married, and doesn't that still go against the Bible? Or does only sanction marriages that are according to His own will? Hmmm, I think I'm starting to answer my own questions here

:-)

 2007/7/17 4:16Profile
vasilef
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Joined: 2005/12/8
Posts: 119
ROMANIA

 Re:

Quote:
Could you provide evidence of the Early Church's acceptance of polygamy continuing in new coverts lives? I have the ECF's writings (Antenicene) and I don't recall reading this practice in the early church, but I may surely have missed something. Thank you. Blessings.........



I cannot provide that ... but I cannot provide evidence that they forbade the 2-nd wife to stay with her husband, too.

We only know that those with more than a wife could not be spiritual leaders in the church and I presume that even if the husband didn't live with his 2-nd wife, he provided for her and their children. But there is no evidence that the apostles told the newly converts to separate from their 2-nd wives...


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Vasile Filip

 2007/7/17 4:57Profile
lastblast
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Joined: 2004/10/16
Posts: 528
Michigan

 Re:

Hi Zeal,

Yes, this issue brings up many questions. Unfortunately, most will not seek out the full truth in the WORD, but instead heed what their pastors teach (all different teachings, by the way), relying upon them for Truth.

As for "lawful"/"unlawful" marriages, as you said, you are already seeing that just because a government sanctions a union, does not mean that God does ;-).......... follow this thought out with those unions Jesus has said are adultery............and really ponder what Rom. 7:2-3 means in light of this.

Concerning "I hate divorce"..........you must read that passage in context (Mal. 2). God is dealing with a man who puts away his COVENANT wife(the one God joined him to as ONE) and then the man marries another.

As scripture shows, there ARE marriages that were put away as acts of REPENTANCE---because the people had disobeyed God in marrying (Ezra 9-10). The divorces in those cases were not sin, they were acts of repentance. Such would be the case today with homosexual marriages, adulterous marriages, and incestual marriages. To "divorce" in such cases would be the fruit of genuine repentance, it would not be sin, as God did not join those unions. The only sin is when man tears apart what GOD joined together (any first/covenant marriages). Blessings.......


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Cindy

 2007/7/17 10:15Profile





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