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Joined: 2006/2/11
Posts: 2895
Philadelphia PA


Hi PreachParsly and everyone else.


The author believes that Mary's father was Joseph and also married a man named Joseph.

Hmm, everyone that we would include in the genealogy is mentioned with "begat", so it seems then that if this Joseph here mentioned refered to the father of Mary, and she, presumably? was to be included in the list, then this word begat would be absent? I would wonder why if she was to be included?

There may be other problems as well but this came to mind.

Christopher Joel Dandrow

 2006/5/26 19:13Profile

Joined: 2005/1/14
Posts: 2164


In the article, the author tries to bring out that in that aramic the word for father and husband was the same word, the interpretation was dependant on the context. The word means "man of" or something similar. So, the author believes when the text was traslated into greek the wrong word,meaning husband, was used.

Right now I'm lodged in between this theory and the one that recounts David or Jechonias (I've seen some do it both ways.

I'll find the right answer eventually. ;-)

I just can't believe most apologetics websites don't mention it. They will talk about why it's different than Luke's, but not why the numbers seemingly don't match.

Josh Parsley

 2006/5/30 10:46Profile

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